Dermatophytes isolated in our clinics. 5-year-study in Zaragoza

BACKGROUND: This review summarizes the different species of dermatophytes isolates in our laboratory between 1991 and 1995. We describe the clinical forms and establish the distribution over this period of time. METHODS: Retrospective survey of samples from outpatients of the Dermatology Service in Miguel Servet Hospital where mycologic cultures are required. The extraction of samples is made by scrapes with a carpet or scalpel and they are cultured on Saboureaud agar with chloramphenicol and dermatophytes agar for 3 weeks. All plates were incubated at 28 degrees C. The identification of isolated strains is made by means of morphologic and physiologic criteria; the doubtful strains were identified in national referral center of Majadahonda CNMVISS. RESULTS: 4004 samples were analyzed from 3934 patients and 543 strains of dermatophytes were isolated. The frequencies were as follow: Microsporum canis (44%), Trichophyton mentagrophytes (31.4%), Trichophyton rubrum (18.6%), Epidermophyton floccosum (2.6%), Microsporum gypseum (1.4%), Trichophyton tonsurans (0.7%), Trichophyton verrucosum (0.7%), Trichophyton violaceum (0.2%) y Microsporum audouinii (0.2%). The most frequently observed dermatophytoses were Tinea corporis (54.8%), followed by Tinea unguium (12.6%), Tinea capitis (12.5%), Tinea pedis (8.3%), Tinea manuum (6.3%), Tinea cruris (4.7%) and Tinea barbae (0.7%). CONCLUSIONS: The zoophylic species are the most prevalent in our area and we have observed a raise of Microsporum canis in recent years. It is important to perform mycologic survey in every suspected lesion in older to determinate the true incidence of human dermatophytoses.     

Measurement of urine relative density using refractometer and reagent strips

BACKGROUND: Onychomycosis appears to be a variable entity: it presents in different forms in different parts of the world. It is probable that every country has its own particularities of presentation and it is also probable that different regions of the same country, with either different or equivalent environmental conditions, present with different levels of incidence. Large-scale epidemiological studies performed worldwide have demonstrated different epidemiological results. OBJECTIVE: This study was undertaken to determine the epidemiology of onychomycosis in the population of southern Greece. METHODS: Direct microscopic examination and culture were performed on samples from patients with clinical suspected onychomycosis. RESULTS: The most frequently isolated fungus was Candida (52.44%), followed by dermatophytes (41.04%) and saprophytic molds (6.51%). Finger nails were infected more than toe nails in both sexes. The most frequently isolated fungus in finger nails was Candida (76%), followed by dermatophytes (23%), and molds (1%); toe nails were most often infected by dermatophytes (71%), Candida (13%) and molds (16%). Among the infected women patients, the most frequently isolated fungus was Candida (64%), followed by dermatophytes (30.58%); 5.33% were infected by saprophytic molds. Of the 101 men infected, dermatophytes were most frequently isolated (62.37%), followed by Candida (28.71%) and saprophytic molds (8.91%). CONCLUSIONS: Comparison of the results of epidemiological studies of onychomycosis worldwide show great differences, not only between different countries and different climate zones, but also between studies performed in the same country. In our opinion such epidemiological studies should be performed in every country in order to determine the major fungal species responsible; such information is extremely useful in the treatment of nail onychomycosis.     

Prevalence of undetected tinea capitis in a school survey in Spain

From October 1994 to November 1995, a prospective study aiming to detect dermatophytes on the scalp was undertaken in 5000 unselected school children aged between 3 and 16 years (mean age 8.34 years, SD +/- 3.83). Thirty-two (0.64%) had dermatophytes in the scalp, 22. (0.44%) had tinea capitis and 10 were asymptomatic scalp carriers. It is important to point out that 33% of the patients with tinea capitis and 60% of the asymptomatic scalp carriers also had ringworm in other body sites. There was a significantly higher proportion of cases of tinea capitis (P < 0.001)(particularly due to Trichophyton tonsurans, P < 0.001) and of cases of asymptomatic scalp carriers (P < 0.05) (particularly due to Trichophyton tonsurans, P < 0.001) in the immigrant population of African origin. In all the child index cases with positive scalp cultures (tinea capitis and carriers), the household members were studied clinically and mycologically. One child had a body ringworm caused by Microsporum canis. Twelve adults had positive cultures with dermatophytosis (one tinea capitis and eleven body ringworm). Three adult patients were also carriers of dermatophytes in other body sites. Our data indicate a change in the causative agents of tinea capitis seen in Madrid over a 12-month period, with cases due to antropophilic species (T. tonsurans, T. soudanense, M. audouinii and T. violaceum) occurring in the immigrant population from Africa; as a consequence, there is an emergence of T. tonsurans in the Spanish population.     

Low seroprevalence of Toxoplasma gondii in feral pigs from a remote island lacking cats

Serum samples from 1,264 feral pigs from Ossabaw Island, Georgia were initially screened for antibodies to Toxoplasma gondii by the modified agglutination test (MAT) using whole-formalinized tachyzoites and mercaptoethanol. Seropositive samples were also tested by the Sabin-Feldman dye test, the latex agglutination test (LAT), and the indirect hemagglutination test (IHAT). Ossabaw Island is a remote, barrier island located southeast of Savannah, Georgia. Antibodies to T. gondii were found in 11 (0.9%) of 1,264 pigs. The antibody titers were 1:20 (1 pig), 1:80 (2 pigs), 1:160 (2 pigs), 1:320 (4 pigs), and 1:640 (2 pigs) by the MAT, and 1:8 (2 pigs), 1:16 (3 pigs), 1:32 (1 pig), 1:64 (2 pigs), 1:128 (1 pig), and > or = 1:256 (2 pigs) by the Sabin-Feldman dye test. By the LAT, 5 pigs had a titer of > or = 1:64 and by the IHAT all 11 pigs had a titer of < 1:64. Antibodies (MAT titer, > or = 1:25) were found in 31 (18.2%) of 170 feral pigs from mainland Georgia. This seroprevalence on the mainland was significantly higher (P < 0.0001) as compared on Ossabaw Island. The markedly low prevalence of T. gondii on Ossabaw Island was attributed to the virtual absence of cats on the Island; only 1 domestic cat was known to be present.     

Gunshot wounds: 10-year experience of a rural, referral trauma center

The 10-year experience of a Level II trauma center with 122 gunshot wounds referred from a large rural area was analyzed to illustrate differences from the experience of urban centers. Most frequent causes of injury were attempted suicide in 38 (31%) patients, hunting mishaps in 32 (26%), unintentional accidents in 29 (24%), and intentional assault in 18 (15%). Of weapons specified, rifles were documented in 48 (39%) instances, shotguns in 25 (21%), and handguns in 24 (20%). Body regions injured were the trunk in 47 (39%) patients, head in 35 (29%), lower extremity in 31 (25%), and upper extremity in 29 (24%). Twenty-five patients (20%) died as a result of their injuries. The cause of death was brain injury in 18 (72%), exsanguination from truncal wounds in 5 (20%), myocardial infarction in 1 (4%), and multiple organ failure in 1 (4%). We conclude that the distributions of cause and type of gunshot wounds are unique in a rural setting. These differences have profound consequences in designing effective prevention programs for our area and support the design of more efficient trauma systems for rural North America.     

Breast cancer in patients treated for Hodgkin's disease: clinical and pathological analysis of 76 cases in 63 patients

In a retrospective multicentric analysis, 63 women treated between 1941 to 1988 for Hodgkin's disease (HD) subsequently developed 76 breast cancers (BC). The median age at diagnosis of HD was 26 years (range 7-67), and 22 women (35%) were 20 years old or less. Exclusive radiotherapy (RT) was used in 36 women (57%) and combined modalities with chemotherapy (CT) in 25 (39%). Breast cancer occurred after a median interval of 16 years (range 2-40) and the median age at diagnosis of the first BC was 42 years (range 25-73). TNM classification (UICC, 1978) showed 10 T0 (non-palpable lesions) (13%), 20 T1 (26%), 22 T2 (29%), 8 T3 (11%), 7 T4 (9%) and 9 Tx (12%), giving altogether a total of 76 tumours, including, respectively, 5 and 8 bilateral synchronous and metachronous lesions. Among the 68 tumours initially discovered, 53 ductal infiltrating, one lobular infiltrating and two medullary carcinomas were found. Moreover, two fibrosarcomas and 10 ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) were also found. Among 50 axillary dissections for invasive carcinomas, histological involvement was found in 31 cases (62%). 45 tumours were treated by mastectomy, without (n = 35) or with (n = 10) RT. 27 tumours had lumpectomy, without (n = 7) or with RT (n = 20). 2 others received RT only, and one only CT. 7 patients (11%) developed isolated local recurrence. 20 patients (32%) developed metastases and all died; 38 are in complete remission, whereas 5 died of intercurrent disease. The 5-year disease-specific survival rate by the Kaplan-Meier method was 61%. The 5-year disease-specific survival rate for pN0, pN1-3 and pN > or = 3 groups were 91%, 66% and 0%, respectively (P < 0.0001) and 100%, 88%, 64% and 23% for the T0, T1, T2 and T3T4 groups, respectively. These secondary BCs seem to be of two types: a large number of aggressive tumours with a very unfavourable prognosis (especially in the case of pN > 3 and/or T3T4); and many tumours with a 'slow development' such as DCIS and microinvasive lesions, especially in patients treated exclusively by RT. Moreover, a very unusual rate of bilateral tumours (21%) was observed. These secondary BC could be 'in field', in 'border of field' or 'out of field'. However, a complete analysis of doses delivered by supradiaphragmatic irradiation was often very difficult, due to large variations in several parameters. We conclude that young women and girls treated for HD should be carefully monitored by clinical examination, mammography and ultrasonography.     

Schwannoma with sweat duct differentiation

In a randomized trial of second line hormone therapy 56 postmenopausal women with advanced breast cancer received low dose aminoglutethimide (AGT) 125 mg twice daily without hydrocortisone (27 patients), or hydrocortisone (HC) 20 mg twice daily (29 patients). The two groups were well-matched for previous response to tamoxifen (TAM) therapy (AGT (35%) vs HC (32%)) and for relapse on adjuvant TAM. The mean age of the two groups was 69.2 years (AGT) and 63.2 years (HC). Liver metastases were present in 29% (AGT) and 33% (HC). The response rates were 11% (AGT) and 21% (HC). At 12 months the failure of treatment rate was 80% (AGT) and 70% (HC). Survival at 12 months was 50% for both groups. At 12 months 5/12 survivors were still on AGT and 8/12 on HC. These preliminary findings have so far failed to show any statistical difference in tumour response, time to treatment failure or survival between low-dose AGT and HC as second-line hormone treatment post-tamoxifen in advanced breast cancer.     

New method to measure the retention of viscoelastic agents on a rabbit corneal endothelial cell line after irrigation and aspiration

BACKGROUND/AIMS: Murine and human studies have documented the existence of subpopulations of lymphocytes in particular tissues that differ phenotypically and functionally from those in peripheral blood and may mature locally. Since little is known about lymphocyte subpopulations in the normal human liver, we have analysed the surface phenotypes of lymphocytes isolated from liver specimens taken from 15 donors at the time of liver transplantation, and compared these with those of peripheral blood lymphocytes. METHODS: Hepatic lymphocytes were prepared by mechanical dissociation and enzymatic digestion of liver tissue. The cells were stained with a panel of monoclonal antibodies (CD3, CD4, CD8, CD19, CD56, gammadeltaTCR, alphabetaTCR, CD8alpha-chain, CD8alphabeta dimer), and analysed by flow cytometry. In situ characterisation of hepatic lymphocytes was by haematoxylin and eosin staining of fixed liver sections and by immunohistochemical staining for common leukocyte antigen and CD3. RESULTS: Significant numbers of hepatic T lymphocytes were localised to the portal tracts and parenchyma of normal liver specimens. Flow cytometry revealed that the CD4/CD8 ratio (1:3.5) was consistently reversed compared with that in peripheral blood (2:1). Other lymphocyte populations identified include double positive CD3+CD4+CD8+ cells which accounted for a mean of 5.5% (range 3-11.6%) of hepatic CD3+ cells compared with 1.3% in blood (range 0.7-3.6%; p < 0.007), and double negative CD3+ CD4-8- cells (14.5%; range 2.7-29% compared with 5.0%; range 2.1-10.8%, p < 0.02). Over 15% (range 6.8-34%) of all hepatic CD3+ cells expressed a gammadeltaTCR compared to 2.7% (range 0.9-4.7%) of CD3+ peripheral blood lymphocytes (p < 0.004) and almost 50% of these coexpressed CD8. The CD8 alpha-chain was expressed without the beta-chain (CD8alpha+beta-) by 15.4% (range 4-29.1%) of hepatic T cells, but this phenotype was undetectable among peripheral blood lymphocytes (p < 0.009). Cells expressing both the T cell marker CD3 and the natural killer cell marker CD56 constituted 31.6% (range 14-54%) of all hepatic CD3+ lymphocytes but were rarely present amongst peripheral blood lymphocytes (0-6%; p < 0.0001). CONCLUSIONS: These data are the first to describe and quantify unconventional T lymphocyte subpopulations in the normal adult human liver which may have specialised functions in regional immune responses and which may differentiate locally. These findings have important implications for our understanding of hepatic immunoregulation and the pathogenic mechanisms involved in viral and immune-mediated liver disease and allograft rejection.     

T cell derived cytokines in psoriatic arthritis synovial fluids

OBJECTIVE: The aim of this study was to investigate the concentrations of T cell derived cytokines in the synovial fluids (SFs) of patients with psoriatic arthritis (PsA) in comparison with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and osteoarthritis (OA). METHODS: Th1 type cytokines (interleukin 2 (IL2), tumour necrosis factor beta (TNF beta), and interferon gamma (INF gamma) and Th2 type cytokines (IL4, IL10) were measured by means of enzyme linked immunosorbent assays. RESULTS: IL2 was usually not detectable in any of the disease groups. TNF beta was found in 3 of 31 PsA SFs (mean (SEM) 11.1 (2.3) pg/ml) and in a significantly lower concentration than in 20 of the 40 RA SFs (42.2 (15.6) pg/ml; p < 0.002). INF gamma was measurable in 2 of 10 PsA and 6 of 16 RA SFs (p > 0.05). IL4 was present at low concentrations in 4 of 22 PsA SFs (0.41 (0.8) pg/ml), and in 15 of 20 RA SFs (0.63 (0.09) pg/ml; p < 0.01). IL10 was found in 4 of 27 PsA SFs (12.3 (0.9) pg/ml) and in 27 of 32 RA SFs (37.3 (4.9) pg/ml; p < 0.0001). In all OA SFs cytokine concentrations were below the limit of detection. CONCLUSION: The pattern of T cell derived cytokines in PsA SFs was similar to that of RA SFs. However, both the frequency and the concentrations of cytokines were lower in PsA SFs than in RA SFs, while OA SFs generally lacked any detectable T cell cytokines altogether. The presence of Th1 and Th2 cell derived cytokines in PsA SFs suggests the presence of activated T cells in the inflamed joint tissues and their participation in the immunoinflammatory events.     

The relationship between the electrocardiographic pattern with TIMI flow class and ejection fraction in patients with a first acute anterior wall myocardial infarction

AIMS: The aim of this study was to assess the value of the electrocardiogram in predicting the patency of the left anterior descending artery and left ventricular ejection fraction in patients with a first acute anterior wall myocardial infarction at discharge from the coronary care unit. METHOD: We included 116 consecutive patients with an acute anterior myocardial infarction who had undergone coronary angiography and left ventriculography before discharge from the coronary care unit (7th to 10th day). The ST segment, either elevated or isoelectric (< 1 mm), and the T wave (positive or negative) in precordial leads V2-V4 were analysed and compared to the TIMI flow from each patient. RESULTS: Out of 69 patients with negative T waves, 38 (55%) had TIMI flow 3 compared with 20 (29%) and 11 (16%) with TIMI flow 2 and 0-1, respectively; and out of 47 patients with positive T waves seven (15%) had TIMI flow 3, 17 (36%) TIMI flow 2 and 23 (49%) TIMI flow 0-1 (P < 0.001). Out of 63 patients with an isoelectric ST segment, 35 (55%) had TIMI flow 3, 18 (29%) TIMI flow 2 and 10 (16%) TIMI flow 0-1, and out of 53 with ST segment elevation, 10 (19%) had TIMI flow 3, 19 (36%) TIMI flow 2 and 24 (45%) TIMI flow 0-1 (P < 0.001). When both parameters were analysed together, we found that in 46 patients with both isoelectric ST segments and negative T waves, 30 (65%) had TIMI flow 3 compared with two of 30 (7%) patients with ST segment elevation and positive T waves (P < 0.001). Patients with isoelectric ST segments had a better degree of left ventricular ejection fraction (57.8 +/- 14.1%) than patients with ST segment elevation (41.7 +/- 13%) (P < 0.001). Patients with positive and negative T waves had a similar left ventricular ejection fraction (49 +/- 18.1% vs 51 +/- 14%). CONCLUSION: We concluded that patients with a first acute anterior myocardial infarction and an electrocardiogram pattern of an isoelectric ST segment and a negative T wave have a higher incidence of a patent left anterior descending coronary artery than similar patients with ST segment elevation and a positive T wave. An isoelectric ST segment is also related to better left ventricular function.     

In vitro evaluation of voriconazole against clinical isolates of yeasts, moulds and dermatophytes in comparison with itraconazole, ketoconazole, amphotericin B and griseofulvin

The in vitro activity of voriconazole (UK-109, 496), a new antifungal triazole derivative, against 650 clinical isolates of yeasts, moulds and dermatophytes was compared with that of itraconazole, ketoconazole, amphotericin B and griseofulvin. The geometric means of the minimum inhibitory concentrations (MICs) of voriconazole were 0.05 microgram ml-1 against yeasts (n = 187), 0.58 microgram ml-1 against moulds (n = 260) and 0.08 microgram ml-1 against dermatophytes (n = 203). The overall activity of voriconazole against yeasts and moulds was good, being similar to that of itraconazole, ketoconazole and amphotericin B. Voriconazole was highly effective against Aspergillus fumigatus (mean MIC 0.23 microgram ml-1) and other Aspergillus species and showed noteworthy activity (mean MICs 0.08-0.78 microgram ml-1) against emerging and less common clinical isolates of opportunistic moulds, such as Alternaria spp., Cladosporium spp., Acremonium spp., Chrysosporium spp. and Fusarium spp. On the other hand, voriconazole was less active in vitro than the comparative agents studied against various species of zygomycetes, such as Mucor spp., Rhizopus spp. and Absidia spp. Voriconazole and the other two azoles, itraconazole and ketoconazole, were more active than griseofulvin in vitro against most dermatophytes tested.     

Enterobacteria of reptiles (author's transl)

The aerobic gram-negative faecal flora of 78 reptiles consisting of 46 species (39 lizards of 23 species, 15 tortoises of 9 species, 24 snakes of 14 species) was studied. Salmonella was found to be present in 50% of lizards, in 16% of tortoises and in 16% of snakes. There were all together 15 different serotypes. Edwardsiella tarda was isolated in 20% of tortoises, in 12% of snakes but only in 3% of lizards. Tortoises represent therefore the possible normal habitat of Edwardsiella tarda. We isolated Arizona specially from snakes as was described by many authors. A new serotype (Arizona 26a, 26b:27 - 21 = S. arizonae 61:Z10:Z35) was found in a rattlesnake. There were found also much amounts of Citrobacter (52%), E. coli (50%), Proteus mirabilis (49%), Proteus morganii (18%), Proteus rettgeri (26%), Proteus vulgaris (32%). Klebsiella and Enterobacter seem to prefere the lizards. The overwhelming majority of the studied bacteria were lactose-negative, corresponding to the inability of reptiles producing lactose. The normal habitat of Salmonellae in reptiles and the high phylogenetic age of reptiles allows the hypothesis that salmonellae could have a similar old age as their host animals, because the ecological niche, i.e. the bowel of reptiles, has no changed for some hundred million years.     

T-cell-rich large-B-cell lymphomas contain non-activated CD8+ cytolytic T cells, show increased tumor cell apoptosis, and have lower Bcl-2 expression than diffuse large-B-cell lymphomas

The factor(s) responsible for the reduced B cell number and increased T cell infiltrate in T-cell-rich large-B-cell lymphomas (TCRBCLs) have not been well characterized. We studied 18 TCRBCLs and 12 diffuse large-B-cell lymphomas (DLBCLs) to compare the 1) predominant T cell subpopulation(s), 2) expression of cytotoxic granule proteins (TIA-1 and granzyme B), 3) level of tumor cell apoptosis (Apoptag system, Oncor, Gaithersburg, MD), and 4) expression of Ki-67 (Mib-1) and apoptosis-related proteins (fas (CD95), bcl-2, and p53). T cells in TCRBCLs and DLBCLs were predominantly CD8+ T cells expressing alphabeta T-cell receptors and TIA-1 (16 of 18 TCRBCLs with >50% TIA-1+ small lymphocytes) but lacking granzyme B (16 of 18 TCRBCLs with <25% granzyme B+ small lymphocytes). Scattered apoptotic tumor cells (confirmed with CD20 co-labeling) were present in 15 of 18 TCRBCLs, with 14 of 15 cases having <10% apoptotic cells. No apoptotic cells were seen in 12 of 12 DLBCLs. In 16 of 16 immunoreactive TCRBCLs, <25% tumor cells were bcl-2+, whereas 6 of 12 DLBCLs had >50% bcl-2+ tumor cells. CD95 (fas) expression was also lower, with 3 of 18 (16.7%) TCRBCLs versus 4 of 12 (33%) DLBCLs having >25% CD95+ tumor cells. TCRBCLs and DLBCLs had similar levels of p53 and Ki-67 (Mib-1) expression. Thus, T cells in TCRBCLs are non-activated cytotoxic T lymphocytes (TIA-1+, granzyme B-). Tumor cell apoptosis (perhaps cytotoxic T cell mediated) may partly account for the decreased number of large (neoplastic) B cells in TCRBCLs, but other factors (ie, decreased bcl-2 expression) may also be needed.     

Prenatal ultrasonic diagnosis of obstructive bowel disease: a retrospective analysis

Fetal obstructive bowel disease was diagnosed in 29 patients at 22-37 weeks (median 32 weeks) of gestation, seven (24 per cent) of whom also displayed other anomalies. Polyhydramnios was present in 20/29 cases (69 per cent). An abnormal karyotype existed in 7/29 cases (24 per cent), of which six were diagnosed prenatally (trisomy 21, n = 5; 69,XXX, n = 1) and one postnatally (trisomy 21). There was always an association with the ultrasonic 'double bubble' sign. Obstructive bowel disease was confirmed postnatally in 20/29 (69 per cent) cases, i.e., oesophageal atresia (n = 1), duodenal obstruction (n = 12), and small bowel obstruction (n = 7). Other anomalies existed in 6/29 (21 per cent) cases, i.e., multicystic kidney (n = 1) and multiple congenital anomalies (n = 5). The perinatal mortality rate was 35 per cent (7/20).     

Mental illness in adults with fetal alcohol syndrome or fetal alcohol effects

PURPOSE: To investigate the aerobic and anaerobic microbiology of dacryocystitis. METHOD: Retrospective review of the 62 clinical and microbiologic records collected between 1980 and 1990. RESULTS: Aerobic or facultative bacteria were recovered in 32 cases (52%), anaerobic bacteria only in 20 cases (32%), mixed aerobic and anaerobic bacteria in seven cases (11%), and fungi in three cases (5%). A total of 94 organisms (1.5 per specimen), which included 56 aerobic or facultative anaerobic organisms, 35 anaerobic organisms, and three fungi, were recovered. The predominant aerobic and facultative bacteria were Staphylococcus aureus (15 isolates), Staphylococcus epidermidis (13 isolates), and Pseudomonas species (seven isolates). The most frequently recovered anaerobes were Peptostreptococcus species (13 isolates), Propionibacterium species (12 isolates), Prevotella species (four isolates), and Fusobacterium species (three isolates). The predominant fungus was Candida albicans (two isolates). Polymicrobial infection was present in 28 cases (45%). CONCLUSION: These data highlight the potential importance of anaerobic bacteria in dacryocystitis.     

Localization of putative tumor suppressor loci by genome-wide allelotyping in human pancreatic endocrine tumors

Only two tumor suppressor gene loci, one on 3p25 and the MEN1 gene on 11q13, have thus far been implicated in the pathogenesis of sporadic human pancreatic endocrine tumors (PETs). A genome-wide allelotyping study of 28 human PETs was undertaken to identify other potential tumor suppressor gene loci. In addition to those on chromosomes 3p and 11q, frequent allelic deletions were identified on 3q (32%), 11p (36%), 16p (36%), and 22q (29%). Finer deletion mapping studies localized the smallest regions of common deletion to 3q27, 11p13, and 16p12.3-13.11. Potential candidate genes at these loci include WT1 (11p13), TSC2 (16p13), and NF2 (22q12), but no known tumor suppressor gene localizes to 3q27. The mean fractional allelic loss among these human PETs is 0.126, and no correlation was observed between allelic loss and clinical parameters, including age, sex, hormonal subtype, and disease stage. These findings highlight novel locations of tumor suppressor gene loci that contribute to the pathogenesis of human PETs, and several of these on 3p, 3q, and 22q are syntenic with loci on mouse chromosomes 9 and 16 that are implicated in a murine transgenic model of PETs.     

Intentions and behaviors of risky drug consumption in users at the rehabilitation centers in Valencia]

Several criteria have been used for differentiating hepatic cavernous hemangioma from other tumors at magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Included are signal intensity and lobulation of the tumor. We counted the frequency of presence of lobulation of liver hemangiomas on T2-weighted images (T2WI), and measured the signal-intensity ratio (SIR) on T1-weighted images (T1WI) and on T2WI with a 0.9 mm x 0.9 mm pixel size using a 0.5 T magnetic resonance system. Eighty-three cavernous hemangiomas in 44 patients and 67 malignant tumors in 44 patients were retrospectively studied. Seventy-five of the cavernous hemangiomas (90%) exhibited lobules of various sizes, and four of the malignant tumors (6%) exhibited lobulations. The cavernous hemangiomas had a significantly higher SIR than the malignant tumors on T2WI: 3.0 +/- 0.7 and 1.9 +/- 0.8 (p < 0.001), respectively. The presence of lobulation together with a high SIR was a useful measure for differentiating cavernous hemangiomas from other liver tumors.     

Management of bowel obstruction in patients with abdominal cancer

OBJECTIVE: To determine the value of operation in patients with bowel obstruction caused by recurrent abdominal cancer. DESIGN: Retrospective case review. SETTING: The University of Connecticut Health Center, Farmington. PATIENTS: Ninety-eight patients admitted with a diagnosis of bowel obstruction and malignant neoplasm between November 1, 1987, and June 30, 1995. RESULTS: Data for 75 patients who developed a bowel obstruction within 5 years of a malignant diagnosis were analyzed. Forty-six patients (61%) were treated operatively and 29 (39%) were treated nonoperatively. The operative group included 32 patients (70%) whose obstruction was caused by carcinomatosis; 6 (19%) of these 32 patients had had at least 1 episode of previous obstruction requiring hospitalization. They had a 22% in-hospital mortality, stayed an average of 21 days in the hospital, and survived 7 +/- 6 months (mean +/- SD) after discharge; 5 (16%) had at least 1 episode of postoperative obstruction that required hospitalization. After discharge from the hospital, 53% had an excellent or good quality of life (assessed retrospectively). Of the 29 patients in the nonoperative group, 16 (55%) had carcinomatosis. These 16 patients had a 38% in-hospital mortality (6 of 16), stayed an average of 10 days in the hospital, and survived a mean of 13 +/- 9 months; 3 (19%) had at least 1 episode of recurrent obstruction requiring hospitalization. After discharge from the hospital, 6 (37%) had an excellent or good quality of life. CONCLUSION: The value of operative intervention for bowel obstruction in patients with cancer is derived from the possibility of a benign cause, not alleviation of the consequences of carcinomatosis.     

In vitro activity of voriconazole against yeasts, moulds and dermatophytes in comparison with fluconazole, amphotericin B and griseofulvin

Voriconazole (CAS 137234-62-9, UK-109,496), a new antifungal triazole derivative, was studied in vitro against 650 clinical isolates, representing yeasts, moulds and dermatophytes, and was compared with fluconazole (CAS 86386-73-4), amphotericin B (CAS 1397-89-3), and griseofulvin (CAS 126-07-8). The mean minimum inhibitory concentrations (MICs) of voriconazole were 0.06 microgram/ml against yeasts (n = 187), 0.74 microgram/ml against moulds (n = 260) and 0.10 microgram/ml against dermatophytes (n = 203). Data from these in vitro studies showed that voriconazole was more potent than fluconazole against most species studied, but particularly against the isolates of moulds and dermatophytes. Overall, voriconazole and amphotericin B indicated comparably good activity against yeasts and moulds. Voriconazole was highly potent against 13 Aspergillus species studied (mean MIC 0.35 microgram/ml) and also showed noteworthy activity (mean MICs 0.08-0.78 microgram/ml) against emerging and less common clinical isolates of opportunistic moulds such as of Alternaria spp., Cladosporium spp., Acremonium spp., Chrysosporium spp., and Fusarium spp. In addition, voriconazole was more active in vitro than griseofulvin against most dermatophytes tested. The in vitro results confirmed that voriconazole has indeed a broad antifungal spectrum and could also be effective against a wide range of fungal infections in patients.     

Primary osteogenic sarcoma of the breast: a clinicopathologic analysis of 50 cases

Extraskeletal osteosarcomas are rare. Few primary mammary osteosarcomas have been reported; many of these have been described in association with a biphasic tumor. Fifty pure osteosarcomas of the breast, diagnosed between 1957 and 1995, were reviewed after excluding those of biphasic origin. The absence of epithelial differentiation was confirmed using a panel of immunohistochemical markers in 32 cases and using ultrastructural evaluation in an additional four cases. Tumors occurred in 49 women and one man; age ranged from 27 to 89 years (median, 64.5 years). One patient received radiotherapy for ipsilateral breast carcinoma 9 years before presentation. Patients were treated by excisional biopsy (n = 13), tylectomy (n = 5) or mastectomy (n = 32). All axillary nodes, dissected in 20 patients, were free of tumor. One patient had extramammary spread at diagnosis. The neoplasms were 1.4 cm to 13.0 cm (mean, 4.6 cm), and 60% were grossly circumscribed. Tumors were classified as fibroblastic (n = 28), osteoclastic (n = 14), or osteoblastic (n = 8). Of 39 patients with available follow-up information, locally recurrent (n = 11) and metastatic (n = 15) disease developed in 23 (59%) at a mean of 10.5 and 14.5 months from diagnosis. Eight (73%) patients in whom local recurrence developed were treated with excisional biopsy or tylectomy; of these, seven had a positive margin. Sixteen (41%) patients died of disease at a mean of 17.1 months, within 20 months of onset of metastases, most commonly to the lung. Mammary osteosarcomas are aggressive tumors with a propensity for blood-borne rather than lymphatic spread. Total excision without axillary dissection is advised.