Deficiency of maternal recognition of fetal-placental antigens in pregnancy complicated by idiopathic growth retardation

We employed the leucocyte-migration inhibition assay to assess reactivity of cells from post-partum women to self placental antigens (SPA) and the presence of the migration inhibition blocking factor in the sera of these women. We also used complement dependent microcytotoxicity assay according to Terasaki to detect anti-fetal lymphocyte cytotoxic antibodies (AFCA) in these sera. Our study was performed in the group of 13 mothers of hypotrophic children and in the group of 14 mothers of eutrophic children. In none of the cases of both groups were AFCA detected. Using the migration inhibition assay we concluded that the deficiency of the response to ASPA occurs significantly more often in the "hypotrophic" than in the "eutrophic" mothers. Our study suggests: 1. lack of the maternal recognition of the fetus (lack of migration inhibition, or lack of the blocking factors) as the potential cause of the intrauterine growth retardation, 2. intrauterine growth retardation is not connected with the presence of AFCA in maternal serum.     

Preferential recognition of human myocardial antigens by T lymphocytes from rheumatic heart disease patients

Acute rheumatic fever (ARF) and rheumatic heart disease (RHD) are autoimmune sequelae of upper respiratory infections with group A streptococci (GAS). To gain a better understanding of the pathogenesis of these diseases, we examined the in vitro proliferative responses of peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) from RHD patients to human myocardial proteins in a T-cell Western assay. A number of myocardial proteins fractionated by sodium dodecyl sulfate-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis were recognized by PBMC from both patients and controls. However, PBMC from a significant percentage of RHD patients (40%) responded to a discrete band of myocardial proteins migrating with an apparent molecular mass of 50 to 54 kDa while none of the control subject PBMC responded to this protein band (P < or = 0.0001). To further investigate the link between infections with GAS and autoimmune carditis, we studied the proliferative responses of PBMC from patients and controls to myocardial proteins before and after in vitro stimulation of the cells with opsonized GAS isolated from ARF patients. Priming of PBMC with rheumatogenic GAS caused the percentage of RHD patients responding to the 50- to 54-kDa myocardial proteins to increase from 43 to 90% (P < or = 0.0284). By contrast, PBMC from control subjects failed to recognize the 50- to 54-kDa myocardial proteins even after stimulation with the opsonized streptococci (P < or = 0.0001). The assay sensitivity was increased from 40 to 90% after priming of a patient's cells with opsonized GAS, but the positive predictive value was 100% in both unprimed and primed cultures. Antibodies generated to partially purified 50- to 54-kDa myocardial proteins did not cross-react with either streptococcal homogenates, purified M protein, myosin, laminin, or vimentin, suggesting a lack of cross-reactivity at the humoral level. This study suggests that the 50- to 54-kDa myocardial proteins contain a putative antigen that is preferentially recognized by T cells from RHD patients and demonstrates that exposure to streptococcal antigens enhances the ability of patients to recognize these proteins.     

Replication indexes of the human immunodeficiency virus: predictive value of viral culture and blood antigens

BACKGROUND: To investigate the relation between markers of load and replication of the HIV [viral culture in plasma and in mononuclear cells of peripheral blood (MCPB) and antigen p24 (p24Ag) with the number of CD4+ cells and the prognosis of the patients. METHODS: A retrospective study was performed in 188 patients who were analyzed and followed over a mean period of 431 days. The criteria of clinical progression (AIDS related complex, and new opportunistic infections), immunologic progression (CD4+ < 0.1 and < 0.05 + 10(9)/l) and death. Cocultures of HIV in free plasma and in MCPB were performed with the detection of complete AgHIV in the supernatant of the culture being used for analysis. Circulating p24Ag was determined by an ELISA technique without previous dissociation of the immunocomplexes. RESULTS: HIV cultures in plasma, in MCPB and p24Ag were positive in 27, 48 and 33% of the patients, respectively. The sensitivity of the indexes increased in agreement with the clinical progression of the patients and was inversely proportional to the depletion of the CD4+ lymphocytes (79% of the patients with CD4+ lymphocytes < 0.05 x 10(9)/l presented positive HIV culture in plasma). Viremia in plasma and to a lesser measure p24Ag correlated with variables recognized as bad prognosis and were found to be predictive of unfavorable evolution. Multivariate analysis demonstrated that pertenence to a symptomatic group and the presentation of a number of CD4+ lymphocytes of less than 0.2 x 10(9)/l were independent factors associated to the positivity of the viral culture in plasma and p24Ag. The culture positive in MCPB was principally related with the volume of blood analyzed. The risk of death was 6.38 fold greater in the presence of a positive plasma culture and 2.02 fold greater in the presence of positive p24Ag. In contrast, the unquantified positive HIV culture in MCPB showed no statistical significance in relation with patient survival. CONCLUSIONS: Positive HIV culture in plasma was the greatest prognostic index in patients with a number of CD4+ lymphocytes less than 0.2 x 10(9)/l. Unquantified cell culture had no predictive significance. To establish the prognosis of patients, the indexes of viral replication should not be used in isolation.     

Influence of viral infection on expression of cell surface antigens in human retinal pigment epithelial cells

BACKGROUND: Subacute viral infection is known to change the phenotype of infected cells, thereby causing immune-mediated tissue damage. The aim of this study was to investigate the expression of different cell surface molecules on human retinal pigment epithelial cells (RPEC) following viral infection, with special emphasis on those having immune-regulatory functions. METHODS: Cultured RPEC were infected with cytomegalovirus (CMV), coxsackie-virus B3 (CVB) or herpes simplex virus type I (HSV). Double-staining fluorescence technique was used for visualization of virus infection and cell surface markers in the same cells by laser microscopy. RESULTS: CMV downregulated MHC class I antigens on RPEC, whereas CVB and HSV did not alter MHC class I antigen expression. No induction of class II antigens was observed in RPEC infected with CVB, HSV or CMV. The intercellular adhesion molecule ICAM-1 (CD54) was strongly expressed in uninfected RPEC, and a slight increase was observed after virus infection. Vascular cell adhesion molecule 1 (VCAM-1) was expressed in low amounts in both uninfected and infected RPEC. No expression of intercellular adhesion molecule 2 (ICAM-2), E-selectin ELAM-1 or lymphocyte-function-associated antigen 1 (LFA-1) was observed on RPEC before or after virus infection. CONCLUSION: Downmodulation of immune-regulating cell surface antigens has been suggested to provide a means of long-term survival of viruses in the infected cell, favoring establishment of persistent infection. Our observation in cultured human RPEC indicates that this mechanism might indeed contribute to the development of disease affecting retinal tissue.     

Immune mechanisms and protective antigens of Vibrio cholerae serogroup O139 as a basis for vaccine development

We have characterized 11 isolates of Vibrio cholerae O139 Bengal with regard to properties deemed to be relevant for development of a vaccine against O139 cholera. For most strains two colony variants, A and B, which are nonhemolytic and hemolytic, respectively, were detected on blood agar. The A and B variants were associated with high- and low-level production of soluble hemagglutinin-protease, respectively. However, on Luria-Bertani agar both types formed opaque colonies, which has been shown to be associated with capsule formation. Interestingly, under the stationary tube-shaken flask culture conditions in yeast extract-peptone water medium which were used to stimulate the production of cholera toxin (CT) and toxin-coregulated pili, B variants constitutively produced CT and TcpA, two ToxR-regulated proteins, at 28 and 37 degrees C, whereas the production of these proteins by A variants was downregulated at the higher temperature. One of the strains, 4260B, having a well-exposed O antigen and capsule and the capacity to produce large amounts of TcpA, CT, and mannose-sensitive hemagglutinin pili but minimal amounts of the proteolytic soluble hemagglutinin, was selected to produce antibacterial antisera and as a challenge strain in protection studies using the rabbit ileal loop model. Rabbit antisera to live, heat-killed, or formalin-killed O139 vibrios or to purified O139 lipopoly-saccharide (LPS) as well as monoclonal antibodies (MAbs) to O139 LPS agglutinated all O139 isolates. However, when A and B variants of strain 4260 were tested for sensitivity to vibriocidal activity of these antibody preparations, only the B variant was killed. All of the antisera against live or killed O139 vibrios conferred passive protection against fluid accumulation induced by the challenge strain. The protective effects of the antisera were correlated to anti-LPS antibody titers rather than to titers against whole bacteria that had been grown for toxin-coregulated pilus expression. This protection was considerably higher than that conferred by antisera to classical, EI Tor, or recombinantly produced (classical) CT or CTB. Furthermore, MAbs to O139 LPS and CTB-CT exhibited a strong synergistic protection against O139 challenge irrespective of the level of sensitivity of challenge strains to O139 LPS MAbs in vibriocidal assays in vitro.     

Heterogeneity in the recognition of Ostertagia circumcincta antigens by serum antibody from mature, infected sheep

OBJECTIVES: To evaluate the Rossavik growth model for predicting birth weight in a Dutch population and to evaluate growth cessation near term. STUDY DESIGN: Birth weight was predicted at various ages between 38 and 42 weeks, menstrual age (MA), and at birth age in 50 normal infants using two sets of ultrasound measurements obtained before 28 weeks, MA. Predicted birth weights were compared to actual weights. The mean percentage difference was used as a measure of systematic error and the standard deviation as a measure of random error. Linear regression analysis was used to evaluate the relationship between percentage differences and birth age. To evaluate the individual growth potential, the Growth Potential Realization Index for weight (GPRIWT) was determined for each fetus. RESULTS: The predictions at 39 and 39.15 weeks, MA, were accurate without systematic error and with a random error of +/-9.3%. Prediction at 38 weeks showed a statistical underestimation (mean +/- SD = -5.8% +/- 8.8), and statistical overestimations were found for predictions after 39.15 weeks and at birth age. A relationship between percentage differences and birth age was not found for predictions between 39.15 and 40 weeks, MA. These findings indicate that growth cessation occurred at 39.15 weeks, MA. Using birth weights predicted at 39.15 weeks, MA, GPRIWT were calculated. The mean GPRIWT value was not significantly different from 100% (p > 0.05), and individual GPRIWT values ranged from 84% to 114%. CONCLUSIONS: The Rossavik growth model can be used to predict birth weight in a Dutch population. However, growth cessation near term appears to occur later than previously reported in other populations.     

Shaping the repertoire of cytotoxic T-lymphocyte responses: explanation for the immunodominance effect whereby cytotoxic T lymphocytes specific for immunodominant antigens prevent recognition of nondominant antigens

The immunodominance effect, whereby the presence of immunodominant epitopes prevents recognition of nondominant determinants presented on the same antigen-presenting cell (APC) considerably restricts the repertoire of cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) responses. To elucidate the molecular basis of the immunodominance effect, we compared the interactions of a dominant (B6(dom1)) and a nondominant epitope (H-Y) with their restricting class I molecule (H2-Db), and their ability to trigger cognate CTLs. We found that B6(dom1)/Db complexes behaved as optimal T-cell receptor (TCR) ligands and triggered a more rapid in vivo expansion of cognate CTLs than H-Y/Db complexes. The superiority of the dominant epitope was explained by its high cell surface density (1,012 copies/cell for B6(dom1) v 10 copies/cell for H-Y) and its optimal affinity for cognate TCRs. Based on these results, we conclude that dominant class I-associated epitopes are those that have optimal ability to trigger TCR signals in CTLs. We propose that the rapid expansion of CTLs specific for dominant antigens should enable them to compete more successfully than other CTLs for occupancy of the APC surface.     

Antibody recognition of Plasmodium falciparum erythrocyte surface antigens in Kenya: evidence for rare and prevalent variants

Plasmodium falciparum erythrocyte membrane protein 1 (PfEMP1) is the name given to a family of parasite proteins that are inserted into the infected erythrocyte surface. Studies using agglutination assays have shown previously that PfEMP1 epitopes are extremely diverse. In a study in Kenya, 21 parasite isolates, including nine from children with severe malaria, were tested for agglutination by 33 pairs of plasma, 21 of which were from the corresponding children. Each plasma pair consisted of a sample taken at the time of disease (acute) and one taken 3 weeks later (convalescent). In agreement with previous studies, infection was generally followed by the induction of antibodies specific to the homologous parasite isolate. In addition however, the results show that (i) some isolates were agglutinated very frequently by heterologous plasma; (ii) unexpectedly, these frequently agglutinated isolates tended to be from individuals with severe malaria; (iii) an inverse relationship existed between the agglutination frequency of each parasite isolate in heterologous plasma and the agglutinating antibody repertoire of the homologous child at the time of disease; and (iv) A 3-month-old child apparently still carrying maternal antibodies was infected by a rarely agglutinated isolate. This child's plasma agglutinated all isolates at the time of disease, apart from the homologous isolate. These results support the idea that preexisting anti-PfEMP1 antibodies can select the variants that are expressed during a new infection and may suggest the existence of a dominant subset of PfEMP1 variants.     

A new Combi test for simultaneous detection of antibodies to viral capsid, early and EBNA antigens of Epstein-Barr virus

In order to facilitate the differentiation between a recent (acute) and a past Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection, the Combi test was developed. This test is an anticomplement immunofluorescence test (ACIF) requiring only a single serum dilution to be tested on a single cellular spot. The cell line used expresses viral capsid antigen (VCA) and early antigen (EA) in about 5 to 10 percent of the cells as well as EBV nuclear antigens (EBNA) in more than 90 percent of cells. A satisfactory agreement between the Combi test and other tests for antibodies to EBV was obtained (IgG and IgM antibodies to VCA by IFA and EIA and antibodies to EBNA by ACIF including tests for heterophile and complement-fixing antibodies). When the standard serological tests gave negative results, the Combi test was also negative (absence of any fluorescence in the cells). Serologically confirmed recent (acute) infections lead to specific fluorescence in only 5 to 10 percent of the cells, while past infections result in fluorescence in 90 percent or more of the cells. For the diagnosis of a reactivated EBV infection or of EBV-associated malignancies, other tests should be employed. The test is based on the measurement of the activation and specific distribution of the C3 component of complement; the antibody class differentiation is therefore not necessary. The presence of rheumatoid factor (RF) and the IgG competition phenomenon do not influence the results of the Combi test. An introduction of the Combi test will enable a simplified, less expensive and more reliable serodiagnosis of EBV infections.     

Point mutation flanking a CTL epitope ablates in vitro and in vivo recognition of a full-length viral protein

CD8+ T cells (T(CD8+)) recognize viral Ags as short peptides (epitopes) displayed at the cell surface by MHC class I molecules. Using a panel of recombinant vaccinia viruses, we show that single-point mutations flanking either side of an H-2Kd-restricted epitope, residues 147-155, within full-length influenza nucleoprotein (NP) can impact, even ablate, presentation of that epitope, while having no effect on presentation of distal epitopes. The most severe blocking mutation (Ala to Pro at position 146) did not inhibit NP(147-155) presentation in the context of a truncated minigene, implying that this peptide is not a functional processing intermediate. An amino-terminal proline replacement also significantly reduced presentation of NP(50-57) (H-2Kk restricted), while the same mutation did not affect a third NP epitope. Thus, while trends in processing specificity may exist, the epitope itself contributes to flanking sequence effects. These findings were paralleled by in vivo priming experiments in which, depending on viral dose, subtle in vitro blocking effects were absolute. Proteasome/synthetic peptide coincubation studies support a role for enhanced epitope destruction in preventing presentation, as did the effect of the peptide aldehyde, LLnL, which restored presentation of NP(147-155) from the mutated constructs. This reagent did not inhibit epitope presentation, even from wild-type NP, suggesting that its production may be proteasome independent. These results support the notion that point mutation of epitope flanking sequence can serve as a mechanism for viral immune evasion, shed light on the mechanisms involved, and suggest that in vitro assays may not be sensitive indicators of flanking sequence effects.     

Inefficient recognition of autologous viral sequences by intrahepatic hepatitis C virus-specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes in chronically infected subjects

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) capable of recognizing prototype hepatitis C virus (HCV) sequences have been shown to localize to the liver in chronically infected individuals, where they are thought to influence hepatic inflammation and viral replication. We isolated three intrahepatic CD8(+) CTL clones from two individuals with chronic HCV infection and compared the recognition of prototype and autologous HCV sequences. These CTL recognized epitopes within the NS2 (amino acids 957-964) or NS3 (amino acids 1402-1410 and 1406-1415) proteins in the context of HLA B37, B8, or A2.1, respectively. The corresponding predominant autologous HCV sequences (SDWAANGL, ELAAKLVGL, and ALRGMGVNAV, respectively) differed from the HCV-1 sequences used for screening (RDWAHNGL, ELAAKLVAL, and KLVALGINAV, respectively) at one to five residues. For each CTL clone, recognition of the autologous HCV sequence required significantly higher peptide concentrations than did recognition of the HCV-1 sequence; for two of the clones, recognition was minimal or absent at peptide concentrations as high as 25 microM. These data show that intrahepatic HCV-specific CD8(+) CTL clones can be relatively inefficient at recognizing autologous viral epitopes. Inefficient recognition of autologous HCV sequences should influence the interpretation of data generated using prototype HCV sequences and might have implications in vivo.     

Immune markers and viral load after HIV-1 seroconversion as predictors of disease progression in a cohort of haemophilic men

OBJECTIVE: To assess the prognostic value of HIV RNA levels measured shortly after HIV seroconversion and whether markers of immune response (CD4+ and CD8+ T-cell counts, IgA and IgG) measured at the same time, continue to provide prognostic information once the HIV RNA level is known. DESIGN AND METHODS: HIV RNA levels were measured approximately 2.5 years after seroconversion in 97 haemophilic men followed for up to 17 years. Levels of CD4+ and CD8+ T cells, IgA and IgG were measured within 1 year of the HIV RNA level. The relationships between these markers and progression to AIDS and death were studied using Kaplan-Meier plots and proportional hazards regression models. RESULTS: High HIV RNA levels were associated with faster progression to AIDS and shorter survival in univariate Cox regression models. High IgA and IgG levels were also associated with faster disease progression. In multivariate models, high HIV RNA levels remained independently associated with faster disease progression [relative hazard (RH), 1.86; P = 0.01 for AIDS; RH, 1.66; P = 0.05 for death). However, high IgA and IgG levels provided strong independent prognostic information for AIDS and death (IgA: RH, 1.38; P = 0.006 for AIDS; RH, 1.33; P = 0.07 for death; IgG: RH, 1.10; P = 0.02 for AIDS; RH, 1.12; P = 0.01 for death). CONCLUSIONS: Our results confirm the importance of the HIV RNA level in assessing the long-term prognosis in individuals infected with HIV. However, our results suggest that immune activation markers, rather than merely reflecting high HIV RNA levels are important in assessing prognosis in their own right. These findings may improve our understanding of HIV pathogenesis and may aid clinical management of patients.     

Genetically modified bone marrow-derived dendritic cells expressing tumor-associated viral or "self" antigens induce antitumor immunity in vivo

The clinical application of synthetic tumor peptide-based vaccines is currently limited to patients with specified major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I alleles. Such logistic limitations may be overcome using tumor gene-based approaches. Here we describe the effective generation of dendritic cells (DC) expressing tumor peptide-MHC complexes as a result of particle-mediated transfer of genes encoding tumor-associated antigens (TAA). Bone marrow-derived DC were transfected with plasmid DNA encoding the tumor-associated viral antigen E7 derived from human papilloma virus (HPV) 16. When applied as a vaccine, these genetically modified DC induced antigen-specific CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) in vivo and promoted the rejection of a subsequent, normally lethal challenge with an HPV 16-transformed tumor cell line. Of greatest interest, immunization of mice with syngeneic DC genetically modified to enhance their presentation of a constitutive "self" epitope derived from the tumor-suppressor gene product p53 caused a significant reduction in the in vivo growth of a chemically induced p53-positive sarcoma. These results suggest that cancer vaccines consisting of DC genetically modified to express TAA of viral or "self" origin effectively induce antitumor immunity in vivo.     

Murine gamma/delta-expressing T cells affect alloengraftment via the recognition of nonclassical major histocompatibility complex class Ib antigens

T cells with antidonor specificities have been isolated from human recipients experiencing graft rejection after allogeneic bone marrow transplantation (BMT). Partial T-cell depletion of unrelated BM grafts with an anti- T-cell receptor (TCR) monoclonal antibody (MoAb) directed against the TCR alpha/beta heterodimer have shown that the incidence of graft-versus-host disease is low and that the incidence of durable engraftment is high. These studies suggest either that the number of residual TCR alpha/beta+ cells was sufficient to permit alloengraftment or that the preservation of cells other than TCR alpha/beta+ cells was beneficial for engraftment. With respect to the latter, one such candidate cell is the TCR gamma/delta+ T cell. Because no studies have specifically examined whether TCR gamma/delta+ cells might be capable of eliminating BM-derived hematopoietic cells, we established a new graft rejection model system in which transgenic (Tg) H-2d mice (termed G8), known to express gamma/delta heterodimers on high proportion of peripheral T cells, were used as BMT recipients. These Tg TCR gamma/delta+ cells respond vigorously to target cells that express the nonclassical major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class lb region gene products encoded in H-2T region of H-2T(b)+ strains. G8 Tg mice were used as recipients for C57BL/6 (B6: H-2(b); H-2T(b)) T-cell-depleted (TCD) donor BM. We show that G8 Tg (H-2(d), H-2T(d)) mice are potent mediators of B6 BM graft rejection and that the rejection process was inhibited by anti-TCR gamma/delta MoAbs. In contrast, BM from a B6 congenic strain that expresses the H-2T(a) allele, B6.A-Tl(a)/BoyEg, was readily accepted, suggesting that H-2T antigens on repopulating donor BM cells are the targets of host graft rejecting T cells that express the TCR gamma/delta heterodimer. PB chimerism studies were performed at > or = 1.5 months post-BMT using TCD BM from severe combined immunodeficient allogeneic donors, which is highly susceptible to rejection by the host. The addition of donor G8 TCR gamma/delta+ cells to TCD donor BM was shown to significantly increase alloengraftment in B6 recipients. These results show that (1) host TCR gamma/delta+ cells can reject repopulating donor cells, presumably by responding to nonclassical MHC class lb gene products expressed on BM-derived hematopoietic progenitor cells; and (2) donor TCR gamma/delta+ cells can facilitate the alloengraftment of rigorously TCD donor BM.     

Differential proliferative and interleukin-10 responses to fractionated filarial antigens: preferential recognition by patients with chronic lymphatic dysfunction

To characterize filarial antigens that may be associated with the development of chronic lymphatic dysfunction in persons with lymphatic filariasis, T cell responsiveness to Brugia pahangi adult worm extracts and SDS-PAGE antigen fractions were examined among Haitians from an area in which Wuchereria bancrofti is endemic. Greater T cell proliferation and interleukin-10 (IL-10) production were observed in amicrofilaremic patients with hydrocele or elephantiasis than in amicrofilaremic or microfilaremic asymptomatic persons. Antigen fractions that stimulated the highest proliferative responses (in the 25-49 kDa range) and IL-10 production were not identical. Further separation of an immunodominant 30- to 38-kDa fraction by ion exchange high-pressure liquid chromatography identified several subfractions, including a 32-kDa protein band, that elicited T cell responses from patients with elephantiasis or hydrocele. By immunoblot, these patients also had markedly greater humoral reactivity to parasite antigens of approximately 52, 43, 32, and 30 kDa.     

Immune suppression by lysosomotropic amines and cyclosporine on T-cell responses to minor and major histocompatibility antigens: does synergy exist?

BACKGROUND: Using murine models, we have shown that the lysosomotropic amine, chloroquine, is effective in the prevention of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) mediated by donor T cells reactive with recipient minor histocompatibility antigens (MiHCs). Because lysosomotropic amines can suppress major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II antigen presentation, their mechanism of action is potentially different from current immune suppressant drugs used to control GVHD such as cyclosporine. METHODS: We investigated the use of cyclosporine and the lysosomotropic amines chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine in combination for additive or synergistic immunosuppression on T-cell responses in vitro to MiHC and MHC in mice. RESULTS: We found that similar concentrations of chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine suppress the T-cell response to MiHC in mice (C57BL/6 anti-BALB.B) and that lysosomotropic amines in combination with cyclosporine result in synergistic suppression of a proliferative response to MiHC. Similar suppression and synergy appear to be present in an alloreactive response (C57BL/6 anti-BALB/c). Direct inhibition by chloroquine of T-cell proliferative responses induced by anti-CD3epsilon in the absence of antigen-presenting cells is present at higher concentrations than that required to suppress responses to MiHC or MHC. Chloroquine appears to induce decreased T-cell viability at high concentrations. This effect does not appear to be due to decreased T-cell production of interleukin-2 or interferon-gamma. At lower concentrations (<25 microg/ml), chloroquine can also decrease the ability of antigen-presenting cells to stimulate an a C57BL/6 anti-BALB/c T-cell response and can inhibit MHC class II expression after activation with lipopolysaccharide. CONCLUSIONS: Lysosomotropic amines in combination with cyclosporine appear to be synergistic in the suppression of T-cell proliferation to MiHC and MHC. Use of chloroquine in combination with cyclosporine may result in improved control of GVHD.     

T-Cell response to woodchuck hepatitis virus (WHV) antigens during acute self-limited WHV infection and convalescence and after viral challenge

The infection of woodchucks with woodchuck hepatitis virus (WHV) provides an experimental model to study early immune responses during hepadnavirus infection that cannot be tested in patients. The T-cell response of experimentally WHV-infected woodchucks to WHsAg, rWHcAg, and WHcAg peptides was monitored by observing 5-bromo-2'-deoxyuridine and [2-3H]adenine incorporation. The first T-cell responses were directed against WHsAg 3 weeks after infection; these were followed by responses to rWHcAg including the immunodominant T-cell epitope of WHcAg (amino acids 97 to 110). Maximal proliferative responses were detected when the animals seroconvered to anti-WHs and anti-WHc (week 6). A decrease in the T-cell response to viral antigens coincided with clearance of viral DNA. Polyclonal rWHcAg-specific T-cell lines were established 6, 12, 18, and 24 weeks postinfection, and their responses to WHcAg peptides were assessed. Five to seven peptides including the immunodominant epitope were recognized throughout the observation period (6 months). At 12 months after infection, T-cell responses to antigens and peptides were not detected. Reactivation of T-cell responses to viral antigens and peptides occurred within 7 days after challenge of animals with WHV. These results demonstrate that a fast and vigorous T-cell response to WHsAg, rWHcAg, and amino acids 97 to 110 of the WHcAg occurs within 3 weeks after WHV infection. The peak of this response was associated with viral clearance and may be crucial for recovery from infection. One year after infection, no proliferation of T cells in response to antigens was observed; however, the WHV-specific T-cell response was reactivated after challenge of woodchucks with WHV and may be responsible for protection against WHV reinfection.