Evaluation of the echinocandin antifungal MK-0991 (L-743,872): efficacies in mouse models of disseminated aspergillosis, candidiasis, and cryptococcosis

The in vivo activity of the Merck antifungal echinocandin drug candidate MK-0991 (L-743,872) was evaluated in mouse models of disseminated candidiasis, aspergillosis, and cryptococcosis. The echinocandins are potent inhibitors of 1,3-beta-D-glucan synthase. Two models of disseminated candidiasis were used. In a Candida albicans mouse survival model with both DBA/2N and CD-1 mice, estimates of the 50% effective doses (ED50s) of MK-0991 were 0.04 and 0.10 mg/kg of body weight/dose at 21 days after challenge, respectively. In a C. albicans target organ assay (TOA) with DBA/2N mice, MK-0991 at levels of > or =0.09 mg/kg/dose significantly reduced the numbers of C. albicans CFU/g of kidneys compared to the numbers in the kidneys of control mice from 1 to 28 days after challenge. Even when given as a single intraperitoneal dose either 30 min or 24 h after challenge, MK-0991 was effective and significantly reduced the numbers of C. albicans CFU/g of kidney compared to those in the controls. MK-0991 was >300-fold less active when it was administered orally than when it was administered parenterally. MK-0991 was efficacious in mouse TOAs against other C. albicans strains and Candida species including Candida tropicalis, Candida (Torulopsis) glabrata, Candida lusitaniae, Candida parapsilosis, and Candida krusei. MK-0991 was ineffective against disseminated Cryptococcus neoformans infections. In the model of disseminated aspergillosis in mice, MK-0991 at doses of > or =0.02 mg/kg/dose significantly prolonged the survival of DBA/2N mice, with estimates of the ED50 and ED90 of MK-0991 being 0.03 and 0.12 mg/kg/dose, respectively, at 28 days after challenge. MK-0991 is a potent, parenterally administered therapeutic agent against disseminated candidiasis and aspergillosis that warrants further investigation in human clinical trials.     

Two- to three-year follow-up of patients with single-vessel coronary artery disease randomized to PTCA or medical therapy (results of a VA cooperative study). Veterans Affairs Cooperative Studies Program ACME Investigators. Angioplasty Compared to Medicine

Despite increasing use of percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) to treat stenotic coronary artery disease, there are relatively few prospective studies evaluating its long-term effectiveness. We prospectively randomized 212 stable patients with provocable myocardial ischemia and single-vessel subocclusive coronary disease to receive primary therapy with either PTCA or medical therapy. This report presents the clinical follow-up of these patients at a mean, after randomization, of 2.4 years for interview and 3.0 years for exercise testing. Of the 212 patients originally randomized, 175 received an extended follow-up interview, and 132 underwent exercise testing; 62% of patients in the PTCA group were angina free compared with 47% of patients in the medical group (p <0.05). Furthermore, exercise duration as measured by treadmill testing was prolonged by 1.33 minutes over baseline in the PTCA group, whereas it decreased by 0.28 minutes in the medical group (p <0.04). Although the angina-free time on the treadmill was not different (p=0.50), fewer patients in the medical group developed angina on the treadmill at 3 years than those in the PTCA group (p=0.04). By 36 months, excluding the initial randomized PTCA, use of PTCA and use of coronary artery bypass surgery were not different in the 2 treatment groups. These data indicate that some of the early benefits derived from PTCA in patients with single-vessel coronary artery disease are sustained, making it an attractive therapeutic option for these patients.     

The CD4+ T lymphocyte is a site of steroid resistance in asthma

Phytohaemagglutinin (PHA)-induced T-cell proliferation is suppressed completely in steroid-sensitive asthma (SSA) by fluticasone propionate (FP). By contrast, in patients with steroid-resistant asthma (SRA), this proliferative response is only partially attenuated by steroids, which suggests that the T lymphocyte may harbour a key molecular defect in these patients. Both CD4+ and CD8+ T cells may be involved in orchestrating the inflammation underlying asthma. We examined whether CD4+ or CD8+ T cells isolated from SRA and SSA patients are equally susceptible to steroid suppression of PHA-induced proliferation. Complete suppression of CD4+ T-lymphocyte proliferation was seen in both SSA and control subjects at concentrations of 10(-9) M FP. In contrast, proliferation of CD4+ T cells from SRA patients was only partially inhibited, even at 10(-6) M FP. CD8+ responses from SRA, SSA and controls were all similar, with only a partial suppression of proliferation at 10(-6) M FP. Differential suppression by FP of CD4+ T cells has thus been demonstrated between SRA and SSA patients.     

Distribution of T-bands and telomeric (TTAGGG)n nucleotide repeats on chromosomes of Bos taurus

Distribution of T-bands on mitotic chromosomes of Bos taurus was studied. Association of T-bands with telomeres and enrichment of T-bands with genes, with a known localization is described. After THA-banding on the chromosomes of cattle, telomeric and pericentromeric regions of all autosomes showed bright fluorescence. The exception was for chromosome 7, which did not have telomeric T-bands. Interstitial T-bands were detected only on chromosomes 7, 16, and Y (7q13, 7q15, 7q22, 7q24, 16q21, and Yp12). A total proportion of centromeric, telomeric, and interstitial T-bands was 11.19, 9.97, and 2.02% of the length of the haploid chromosome set, respectively. By means of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH), the presence of the telomeric repeat (TTAGGG)n was shown not only in telomeric regions of all autosome, but also in all pericentromeric regions. The obtained data are indicative of the specificity of T-banding on the chromosomes of Bos taurus.     

ILAE-defined epilepsy syndromes in children: correlation with quantitative MRI

PURPOSE: The role of quantitative magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in evaluation of childhood epilepsy remains poorly defined, with minimal published data. Previous work from our center questioned the specificity of hippocampal asymmetry (HA) in an outpatient group whose epilepsy was defined by using clinical and interictal data only. By using childhood volunteer controls and defining epilepsy syndromes using video-EEG monitoring, we readdressed the utility of HA in differentiating mesial temporal lobe epilepsy (MTLE) from other partial and generalized epileptic syndromes in children. METHODS: Seventy children were enrolled; entry criteria were age younger than 18 years with predominant seizure type recorded on video-EEG telemetry with volumetric MRI in all cases. Thirty healthy child volunteers had volumetric MRI. Epilepsy syndrome classification was according to ILAE. RESULTS: Control data revealed symmetric hippocampi, mean smaller/larger ratio of 0.96 (0.95-0.97, 95% CI) with no gender or right/left predominance. Overall 23% of patients had significant HA. Mean hippocampal ratio for MTLE was 0.78 (95% CI, 0.70-0.86), significantly lower than controls and from all other epilepsy syndromes. HA was highly specific (85%) to the syndrome of MTLE. Other potential epileptogenic lesions were found in 27 (39%) patients, lowest yield in frontal and mesial temporal syndromes. Dual pathology was present in 10% of patients. There was no significant association between HA and risk factors. CONCLUSIONS: In this study, we found that HA in children with a well-defined epilepsy syndrome is highly sensitive and specific for MTLE. Whether this will correlate with surgical outcome, as in adults, is the subject of ongoing study.     

Obliterative vesicourethral strictures following radical prostatectomy for prostate cancer: reconstructive armamentarium

PURPOSE: We report the reconstructive techniques used to correct obliterative vesicourethral strictures related to prostate cancer surgery. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Four men with anastomotic obliteration after radical prostatectomy underwent primary excision with end-to-end anastomosis, penile fasciocutaneous flap, free-graft urethroplasty with rectus muscle flap or anterior bladder tube with omental pedicle flap procedure. RESULTS: At mean followup of 33.8 months all patients had urethral patency but none was continent. CONCLUSIONS: Single stage reconstruction of the obliterated vesicourethral anastomosis after prostatectomy successfully restored urethral patency. No technique was applicable in all cases. Sphincteric function is likely to be compromised after the primary procedure, resulting in incontinence after successful urethral reconstruction. Subsequent artificial sphincter placement appears to be safe and helpful in restoring continence.     

Tailed. New options in therapy of bronchial asthma

A correct access opening is the key to endodontics. An adequate anatomical access preparation maximizes cleaning, shaping, and obturation. The major objectives of access preparation are straight line access to the apical area, conservation of tooth structure, and unroofing of the pulp chamber. The safe-ended diamond bur technique provides an efficient and rapid means to obtain the objective of access preparation in posterior teeth.     

The effects of perindopril on vascular smooth muscle polyploidy in stroke-prone spontaneously hypertensive rats

OBJECTIVE: To quantify vascular smooth muscle polyploidy and growth kinetics in aortic cells from stroke-prone spontaneously hypertensive rats (SHRSP) and from normotensive Wistar-Kyoto (WKY) rats, and to examine the effects of treatment with the angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor perindopril on these parameters. DESIGN: The following experimental groups were used: young (age < 20 weeks) and old (age > 20 weeks) untreated WKY rats and untreated SHRSP; SHRSP treated with perindopril, and age- and sex-matched control SHRSP; and SHRSP treated with hydralazine and hydrochlorothiazide and age- and sex-matched control SHRSP. The effects of treatment of the SHRSP with perindopril for 30 days on vascular smooth muscle polyploidy and growth kinetics were measured and compared with the effects of equivalent antihypertensive doses of hydralazine and hydrochlorothiazide. METHODS: Vascular smooth muscle polyploidy was measured using flow-cytometry DNA analysis of freshly harvested cells. Growth curves were performed on cultured aortic cells. Plasma renin activity was measured by an antibody-trapping method, plasma angiotensin II (Ang II) by radioimmunoassay and plasma ACE activity by a colorimetric method. Cardiac hypertrophy was evaluated by measuring the heart weight:body weight and left ventricle + septum weight:body weight ratios. RESULTS: The SHRSP had markedly and significantly elevated G2 + M phase of the cell cycle. Treatment with perindopril resulted in a significant reduction in polyploidy in the SHRSP, whereas treatment with hydralazine and hydrochlorothiazide had no effect on the percentage of cells in the G2 + M phase of the cell cycle. The regression of polyploidy after treatment with perindopril was associated with a significant reduction in the concentration of Ang II and ACE activity, and with a significant regression of cardiac hypertrophy. Increased mitogenesis of cultured vascular smooth muscle cells from the SHRSP was not altered by treatment with perindopril. CONCLUSIONS: ACE inhibition reduces vascular smooth muscle polyploidy in large conduit arteries. This type of vascular protection is mediated by the reduced Ang II and possibly by increased kinins level, rather than by the hypotensive effect alone.