Low density lipoprotein of synovial fluid in inflammatory joint disease is mildly oxidized

The histologic diagnosis of adult renal epithelial neoplasms with prominent eosinophilic cytoplasm (renal oncocytoma, chromophobe renal-cell carcinoma (RCC), eosinophilic variant of clear-cell RCC, eosinophilic variant of papillary RCC, and collecting duct carcinoma), could be problematic in some cases because of overlapping morphologic features. Precise diagnosis is essential, however, because it often connotes a distinct biologic behavior. Proliferative activity has not been specifically investigated in this spectrum of renal tumors, so we studied the MIB-1 proliferation index in 20 renal oncocytomas, 12 chromophobe RCCs, 9 eosinophilic variants of papillary RCCs, and 13 eosinophilic variants of clear-cell RCCs. Our purpose was to identify the biologic potential of these renal tumors on the basis of MIB-1 tumor proliferation index and to ascertain whether that index had diagnostic value. Overall, nuclear grade correlated with MIB-1 tumor proliferation index (P=.03). The mean proliferation index progressively increased from renal oncocytomas (0.3) to chromophobe RCCs (0.8) to eosinophilic variants of papillary RCCs (2.2) to eosinophilic variants of clear-cell RCCs (4.1) (P=.002). None of the renal oncocytomas or chromophobe RCCs had an index greater than 2, whereas 8 of 13 eosinophilic variants of clear-cell RCCs had an index greater than 2; in 5 of these, it was more than 3. Thus, in the differential diagnosis between renal oncocytoma/chromophobe RCC and eosinophilic variant of RCC, an MIB-1 index of greater than 3 with appropriate morphologic correlation would strongly support the diagnosis of the latter. We also concluded that the progressive increase in MIB-1 tumor proliferation index across the spectrum of granular renal-cell neoplasms parallels the emerging data in the current literature concerning the biologic potential of adult renal epithelial tumors and justifies histologic categorization of adult renal epithelial neoplasms.     

Change in colony morphology influences the virulence as well as the biochemical properties of the Mycobacterium avium complex

Factors that influence colony morphology are of crucial importance for drug development as well as for understanding the virulence of Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) strains. The MAC 101 strain used in the present study grows as smooth transparent (SmT) colonies that tend to become opaque and pigmented when incubated for long periods of time. However, when MAC was passaged in animals, two types of colonies were recovered. The new rough transparent (RgT) colony morphology appeared more flat and transparent, having a central spot, irregular edges at times, and a dry, granular appearance like that of the rough mutants. In animal studies, the RgT bacilli multiplied at a much faster rate than that of the SmT bacilli, causing 60-80% mortality compared with the 10% mortality observed in mice infected with SmT. In vitro studies indicated that the SmT MAC did not grow and multiply as well in resident peritoneal macrophages as the RgT MAC did. The two morphotypes did not differ in their growth ratesin vitro but the RgT MAC failed to reduce dimethylthiazol-diphenyltetrazolium bromide (MTT), alamar blue and neutral red, suggesting that there might be significant changes in the cell wall or elsewhere causing changes in cellular permeability. These two morphotypes could serve as models for studying the biochemical markers or the identification of factors responsible for the virulence of the MAC.     

Thalidomide analogs and PDE4 inhibition

N-Phthaloyl 3-amino-3-arylpropionic acid analogs of thalidomide that are potent inhibitors of tumor necrosis factor-alpha are reported. These compounds were found to be potent inhibitors of phosphodiesterase 4.     

Stability of vancomycin in an extemporaneously compounded ophthalmic solution

The stability of vancomycin 31 mg/mL (as the hydrochloride) in an artificial tears solution at -10, 4, 25, and 40 degrees C was studied. Vancomycin power was reconstituted with sterile water for injection to a concentration of 50 mg/mL. Artificial tears solution containing 0.3% hydroxypropyl methylcellulose, 0.1% dextran 70, 0.01% benzalkonium chloride, and 0.05% edetate disodium was used to produce a final concentration of 31 mg/mL. Triplicate solutions for each storage temperature and sampling time were prepared. The solutions were stored at -10, 4, 25, and 40 degrees C. Samples were taken initially and at 3, 7, 10, 21, 30, 45, and 60 days for visual inspection and analysis by high-performance liquid chromatography. All solutions remained clear and colorless at -10, 4, and 25 degrees C throughout the study period. By day 3, crystalline particles formed in the solutions stored at 40 degrees C. No substantial change in pH was observed at any time. At -10 degrees C, the solutions retained more than 90% of their initial vancomycin concentrations throughout the study period. The solutions retained a mean of at least 90% of the initial drug concentration for 21 days at 4 degrees C and for 7 days at 25 degrees C. For the solutions stored at 25 or 40 degrees C, less than 85% of the initial vancomycin concentration remained after 10 and 3 days, respectively. Vancomycin 31 mg/mL (as the hydrochloride) in an artificial tears solution was stable for 45 days at -10 degrees C, 10 days at 4 degrees C, and 7 days at 25 degrees C in the tears solution's original container.     

TFF1 gene expression in human medullary thyroid carcinoma

This epidemiological study investigated the reasons why children in Northern Ireland who need orthodontic treatment do not receive treatment even when it is provided free by the state. A total of 1584 15- and 16-year-olds were examined in 23 high schools with the Index of Orthodontic Treatment Need. The characteristics of the adolescents who had received orthodontic treatment were compared with those who had a definite need for treatment and yet did not receive treatment or advice. One in 10 of the adolescents examined had an unmet need for orthodontic treatment. Logistic regression analysis was used to assess the influence of 11 variables including socioeconomic status, religion, and standard of dental health on the uptake of orthodontic care. This analysis revealed that the only significant predictors of whether an adolescent received orthodontic treatment was the dental attendance pattern of the adolescent, the adolescent's dental health, and the dental attendance pattern of the adolescent's mother. Those adolescents who had good dental health, who regularly attended a dentist, and whose mother regularly attended a dentist were more likely to receive orthodontic treatment.     

Characterization of DNA sequences encoding a novel isoform of the 55 kDa B regulatory subunit of the type 2A protein serine/threonine phosphatase of Arabidopsis thaliana

We have identified a novel gene (AtB beta) encoding a previously uncharacterized isoform of the B regulatory subunit of the type 2A serine/threonine protein phosphatase (PP2A) of Arabidopsis, and show that mRNA derived from the AtB beta gene accumulates in all Arabidopsis organs. In addition, we examined the expression of the three genes encoding the A regulatory subunit of Arabidopsis PP2A and show these genes are expressed in all organs as well. Taken together, our results suggest a myriad of PP2A subunit combinations, possibly with distinct substrate specificities, may occur within each Arabidopsis cell.     

Complicated right subclavian artery pseudoaneurysm after central venipuncture

Life-threatening complications of central venipuncture are rare. We report an unusual case of a patient in whom a large right subclavian pseudoaneurysm developed, causing pressure necrosis of the membranous trachea and esophagus, after right internal jugular vein cannulation. The patient underwent oversewing of the proximal and distal ends of the subclavian artery and primary tracheal repair. An esophageal leak that presented on the sixth postoperative day was treated by primary suture repair with proximal and distal diversion.     

Cutaneous lymphoma with extensive periarticular involvement in a horse

Two months after colic surgery, subcutaneous masses were found on the ventral and lateral portions of the thorax of a 3-year-old Hanoverian-cross filly. Six months later, the filly was admitted for evaluation of severe lameness. Arthrocentesis of the tarsocrural joint yielded clotted sanguineous material; however, unusual multinucleated giant cells were seen. Radiography of the right tarsus revealed soft tissue opacity and degenerative joint disease. The filly was euthanatized to prevent further suffering. At necropsy, multiple soft-tissue masses were located throughout the fascial planes of the tarsi and in the subcutis of the ventral and lateral portions of the thorax. Neoplasms consisted primarily of a large number of mature well-differentiated T lymphocytes. On the basis of these findings, the diagnosis was cutaneous lymphoma with unusual involvement of periarticular tissues. Severe degenerative joint disease in the right tarsus did not appear to be associated with the tumors.     

Herpes simplex virus type 1 alkaline nuclease is required for efficient processing of viral DNA replication intermediates

Mutations in the alkaline nuclease gene of herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) (nuc mutations) induce almost wild-type levels of viral DNA; however, mutant viral yields are 0.1 to 1% of wild-type yields (L. Shao, L. Rapp, and S. Weller, Virology 195:146-162, 1993; R. Martinez, L. Shao, J.C. Bronstein, P.C. Weber, and S. Weller, Virology 215:152-164, 1996). nuc mutants are defective in one or more stages of genome maturation and appear to package DNA into aberrant or defective capsids which fail to egress from the nucleus of infected cells. In this study, we used pulsed-field gel electrophoresis to test the hypothesis that the defects in nuc mutants are due to the failure of the newly replicated viral DNA to be processed properly during DNA replication and/or recombination. Replicative intermediates of HSV-1 DNA from both wild-type- and mutant-infected cells remain in the wells of pulsed-field gels, while free linear monomers are readily resolved. Digestion of this well DNA with restriction enzymes that cleave once in the viral genome releases discrete monomer DNA from wild-type virus-infected cells but not from nuc mutant-infected cells. We conclude that both wild-type and mutant DNAs exist in a complex, nonlinear form (possibly branched) during replication. The fact that discrete monomer-length DNA cannot be released from nuc DNA by a single-cutting enzyme suggests that this DNA is more branched than DNA which accumulates in cells infected with wild-type virus. The well DNA from cells infected with wild-type and nuc mutants contains XbaI fragments which result from genomic inversions, indicating that alkaline nuclease is not required for mediating recombination events within HSV DNA. Furthermore, nuc mutants are able to carry out DNA replication-mediated homologous recombination events between inverted repeats on plasmids as evaluated by using a quantitative transient recombination assay. Well DNA from both wild-type- and mutant-infected cells contains free U(L) termini but not free U(S) termini. Various models to explain the structure of replicating DNA are considered.     

Influence of atipamezole on effects of midsacral subarachnoidally administered detomidine in mares

BACKGROUND: The reliable interpretation of the nasal provocation test in allergy diagnosis requires objective and measurable monitoring parameters for clinical practice. The clinical usefulness of the nasal provocation test has been limited by scanty knowledge of the specificity and sensitivity of the test and a lack of reference values. OBJECTIVE: To test and compare three objective monitoring parameters of a nasal provocation test in occupational allergic rhinitis. To evaluate the magnitude of the nasonasal effects in a unilateral allergen challenge. METHODS: The monitoring parameters of the nasal reaction were derived from the minimum cross-sectional area on acoustic rhinometry, the nasal resistance on active anterior rhinomanometry and the amount of nasal secretion measured at 15 min intervals for 60 min. Twenty-three bovine-allergic dairy and beef cattle farmers and 19 exposed, non-allergic control subjects were challenged first with a control solution and then with the cow allergen. RESULTS: All the three monitoring parameters showed high specificity and sensitivity in finding allergic and non-allergic subjects. The secretion parameter was found to be slightly superior to the acoustic rhinometry and rhinomanometry parameters. The side difference in the nasal response between the allergen-challenged and the contralateral diluent-challenged cavity was significant for all the parameters among the allergic subjects. The contralateral secretion amount was 1/3 of the ipsilateral secretion, indicating the magnitude of the contralateral nasonasal reflex. A nasonasal reflex was also noted in the nasal patency monitoring. The coefficient of variation was significantly lower for the acoustic rhinometry than for the rhinomanometry (P=0.0001). The optimal threshold values for a positive test were a secretion amount of 100 mg, a 15% decrease in the minimum cross-sectional area and a 50% increase in the resistance for the observation period of 30 min and correspondingly 210 mg, 30% and 100% for 60 min. CONCLUSION: The low-pressure aspiration of the nasal secretion from the anterior part of the nasal cavity was found to be a reliable and practical monitoring parameter to be used together with acoustic rhinometry or rhinomanometry in the nasal provocation test for clinical purposes. Although significant nasonasal effects took place in the unilateral allergen challenge, the response was more prominent in the allergen-challenged than in the contralateral diluent-challenged nasal cavity in most allergic subjects.