Pharmacological aspects of mouse hind-paw oedema induced by Lachesis muta rhombeata venom

Pharmacological aspects of mouse hind-paw oedema induced by subplantar injections of Lachesis muta rhombeata (LMR) venom were investigated. The oedema induced by subplantar injections of 10 to 50 ng/g of LMR venom is dose dependent, with onset, peak and duration at 30, 60 and 180 min, respectively. Subplantar injection of 30 ng/g of Bothrops jararaca (BJ) venom induced oedema that has the same intensity as 30 ng/g of LMR venom but lasts for more than 4 h suggesting different time course. Systemic effects or haemorrhage were not observed with doses less than 50 ng/g. Oedema is not due to the presence of oedematogenic amines since dialysis did not change the oedema induced by 30 ng/g of LMR venom. Part of the oedema induced by LMR venom is due to a thermolabile fraction since pre-heating the venom at 100 degrees C for 15 min induced a significant reduction (56.19 +/- 6.8%) of the oedematogenic activity. The oedema induced by LMR venom is possibly induced by release of a pharmacological active substance at the site of injection. Histamine, arachidonate metabolites, nitric oxide and serotonin may play important roles in the oedematogenic effect of LMR venom since pre-treatment of mice with pyrilamine, indomethacin, dexamethasone, L-NAME and methysergide induced a significant reduction (49.86 +/- 10%; 51.06 +/- 5.9%; 77.66 +/- 3.6%; 73.30 +/- 6.1% and 93.77 +/- 2.8%, respectively) of the oedema formation. The present results demonstrate that the oedema induced by LMR and BJ venoms may be triggered and maintained by different pharmacological mechanisms. Since methysergide and L-NAME were the most active inhibitors of the oedema we can suggest that a link between serotonin release by the venom and a NO synthase activation may be an important step in the oedema formation induced by LMR venom.     

Analytical approach to heterogeneity correction factor calculation for brachytherapy

In brachytherapy treatment planning, the effects of tissue and applicator heterogeneities are commonly neglected due to lack of accurate, general, and fast three-dimensional (3D) dose-computational algorithms. A novel approach, based on analytical calculation of scattered photon fluxes inside and around a disk-shaped heterogeneity, has been developed for use in the three-dimensional scatter-subtraction algorithm. Specifically, our model predicts the central-ray dose distribution for a collimated photon isotropic source or brachytherapy "minibeam" in the presence of a slab of heterogeneous material. The model accounts for the lateral dimensions, location, composition, density, and thickness of the heterogeneity using precalculated scatter-to-primary ratios (SPRs) for the corresponding homogeneous problem. The model is applicable to the entire brachytherapy energy range (25 to 662 keV) and to a broad range of materials having atomic numbers of 13 to 82, densities of 2.7 g.cm-3 (Al) to 21.45 g.cm-3 (Pt) and thicknesses up to 1 mean free path. For this range of heterogeneous materials, the heterogeneity correction factors (HCFs) vary from 0.09 to 0.75. The model underestimates HCF when multiple scattering prevails and overestimates HCF when absorption dominates. However, the analytic model agrees with Monte Carlo photon transport (MCPT) benchmark calculations within 1.8% to 10% for 125I, 169Yb, 192Ir, and 137Cs for a wide variety of materials, with the exception of Ag. For 125I shielded by Ag, where the mean discrepancy can exceed 25%, the error is due to K-edge characteristic x rays originating within the heterogeneity. The proposed approach provides reductions in CPU time required of 5 x 10(4)-10(5) and 100 in comparison with direct MCPT simulation and 1D numerical integration, respectively. The limitations of model applicability, as determined by the physical properties of heterogeneity material and accuracy required, are also discussed.     

Human cells arrest in S phase in response to adenovirus 12 E1A

In the present investigation, nuclei of endodermal cells, primary and secondary mesenchyme cells (PMCs and SMCs), and small micromere descendants (SMDs) of the sea urchin Lytechinus variegatus were counted and mapped at five developmental stages, ranging from primary invagination to pluteus larva. The archenteron and its derivatives were measured three dimensionally with STERECON analytical software. For the first time SMC production is included in the kinetic analysis of archenteron formation. While the archenteron lumen doubled in length during secondary invagination, the number of archenteron cells increased by at least 38% (over 50% when SMCs that emigrated from the tip of the archenteron were included). The volume of the archenteron epithelial wall plus the volume of 17 new SMCs increased by 40% over the equivalent volumes at the end of primary invagination. Because secondary invagination involves the addition of archenteron cells and an increase in volume of the archenteron epithelium, we conclude that secondary invagination is not accomplished simply by the rearrangement and reshaping of the primary archenteron cells. Both archenteron cell number and wall volume continued to increase at the same rates from the end of secondary invagination until the 27-h prism stage, although the lumen lengthened more slowly. SMCs were also produced at a constant rate from primary invagination until the prism stage. Because the production of both endodermal and mesodermal cells continues until the late prism stage, we conclude that gastrulation (defined as the establishment of the germ layers) also extends into the late prism stage.     

The tachykinin NK1 receptor antagonist, RP67580, inhibits the bradykinin-induced rise in intracellular Ca2+ concentration in bovine pulmonary artery endothelial cells

The bradykinin-induced rise in intracellular Ca2+ concentration ([Ca2+]i) and the bradykinin receptor involved in this response were characterized in bovine pulmonary artery endothelial cells. It was found that bradykinin induces an intracellular biphasic Ca2+ response, consisting of a transient peak followed by an elevated plateau phase. Both bradykinin and the bradykinin B1 receptor agonist, des-Arg9-bradykinin, induced a concentration-dependent increase in [Ca2+]i, but the bradykinin-induced rise was much greater. Moreover, the bradykinin-induced [Ca2+]i rise could be inhibited by the bradykinin B2 receptor antagonists, D-Arg0[Hyp3, Thi(5,8), D-Phe7]bradykinin and Hoe 140 (D-Arg[Hyp3, Thi5, D-Tic7, Oic8]bradykinin), but not by the bradykinin B1 receptor antagonist, des-Arg9-[Leu8]bradykinin. From these results it can be concluded that a bradykinin B2 receptor is involved in this response. Furthermore, we found that the tachykinin NK1 receptor antagonist, RP67580 ([imino 1 (methoxy-2-phenyl)-2 ethyl]-2 diphenyl 7,7 perhydroisoindolone-4 (3aR, 7aR)), and its negative enantiomer, RP68651 (2-[1-imino 2-(2 methoxy phenyl) ethyl] 7,7 diphenyl 4-perhydroisoindolone (3aS-7aS)), could inhibit the bradykinin-induced [Ca2+]i response, although no functional tachykinin NK1 receptors were found. Binding studies evidenced no binding of RP67580 or RP68651 to the bradykinin receptor. We conclude that RP67580 inhibits the bradykinin-induced rise in [Ca2+]i via a bradykinin B2 receptor-independent mechanism.     

Residual disease detection using fluorescent polymerase chain reaction at 20 weeks of therapy predicts clinical outcome in childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia

PURPOSE: Ninety-five percent of children with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) will achieve a remission, but approximately 25% will relapse. Identifying these patients is difficult, as patients with adverse prognostic features at presentation are rare and the majority are standard risk. Analysis of minimal residual disease (MRD) may be able to determine those at risk of relapse, but the best method by which this can be accomplished has yet to be defined. The object of this study was to determine the predictive value of residual disease detection in a group of standard-risk patients with precursor-B ALL at a fixed point in therapy (week 20) using a simple fluorescent consensus immunoglobulin H (IgH) heavy chain polymerase chain reaction (PCR). PATIENTS AND METHODS: Forty-two patients who presented with precursor-B ALL with standard-risk clinical features and treated according to either the Medical Research Council (MRC) UKALL X or XI protocols were assessed using a combination of both fluorescent consensus framework I and framework III Ig heavy-chain PCR. The results of the PCR were analyzed on an ABI 373 gene sequencer with genescan software (Applied Biosystems, Foster City, CA). Clonal rearrangements detected at presentation were looked for at week 20. RESULTS: Of 42 patients, 35 had a clonal population detectable at presentation; of these, seven had more than two clonal rearrangements; this latter group showed a similar disease-free survival (DFS) to the group as a whole. Thirty of 35 patients were analyzed before their second course of intensification therapy at week 20. At this point, nine of 30 had a detectable clonal rearrangement, eight (89%) of whom have since relapsed with a median DFS of 27.5 months. Of the rest of the group (n=21), in whom no clonal rearrangement was detectable, only six (21%) have relapsed. CONCLUSION: Fluorescent IgH PCR at week 20 provides a sensitive and specific means to predict ultimate relapse (57% and 89%, respectively) and is a simple yet promising technique for the identification of patients at risk of poor outcome.     

Cumulation of the tendency to segregate auditory streams: resetting by changes in location and loudness

In four experiments, the accumulation, over time, of a tendency to hear separate high and low streams in a sequence of high (H) and low (L) tones, presented in a galloping rhythm (HLH-HLH-...), was studied. Each trial was composed of two parts, an induction sequence, then a test sequence, with no break between them. The test sequence was always heard at the far left. When the induction sequence and the test sequence were identical, the presence of the induction sequence increased the tendency for the test sequence to split into two streams. However, when the sequences differed in location (cued by differences in interaural timing or intensity over headphones and by loudspeaker placement in a free field) or when they differed in loudness, the accumulation of the segregative tendency was reset, and the test sequence sounded more integrated. When the induction sequence changed in location or loudness in gradual steps toward the value of the test sequence, resetting was much less. It appears that the accumulation of information about streams in different frequency regions is sensitive to sudden changes in parameters, even when they affect the frequency regions equally. This prevents the system from accumulating data across unrelated events.     

The lung as an alternative route of delivery for insulin in controlling postprandial glucose levels in patients with diabetes

STUDY OBJECTIVES: To determine the efficacy of the lung as an alternative route of delivery for insulin in controlling glucose below diabetic levels (11.2 mmol/L) 2 h after the ingestion of a meal in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DESIGN: Single-blinded, nonrandomized, placebo-controlled pilot study consisting of two visits. SETTING: A primary care facility. PATIENTS: Seven patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. INTERVENTIONS: On the first study visit, fasting glucose levels were normalized. Then, patients inhaled 1.5 U/kg insulin by aerosol into the lungs 5 min before ingesting a test meal. On the second visit, patients inhaled placebo aerosol 5 min before ingesting the same meal. On both visits, plasma samples were collected and analyzed for glucose levels for 3 h during the postprandial state. MEASUREMENTS AND RESULTS: No one coughed after inhalation of insulin aerosol or demonstrated hypoglycemia. During the postprandial period, glucose levels were significantly lower at 20 min (5.12+/-1.08 mmol/L), 1 h (7.87+/-0.73 mmol/L), 2 h (8.05+/-1.24 mmol/L) and 3 h (7.50+/-1.43 mmol/L) following inhalation of insulin than when the placebo was used. Data for the placebo were 10.36+/-1.23 mmol/L at 20 min, 14.0+/-1.68 mmol/L at 1 h, 16.18+/-1.45 mmol/L at 2 h, and 14.37+/-2.11 mmol/L at 3h (for all comparisons, p < 0.05). On the insulin visit, glucose levels were < 11.2 mmol/L 2 h after the meal in six of seven patients. None attained this level at the placebo visit. In addition, glucose levels were within the normal postprandial range of < 7.84 mmol/L in four of seven patients 2 h after eating on the insulin visit. CONCLUSIONS: These results suggest that, once plasma glucose levels are normalized, postprandial glucose levels can be maintained below diabetic levels by delivering 1.5 U/kg insulin into the lungs 5 min before the ingestion of a meal.     

Strand asymmetry of CpG transitions as indicator of G1 phase-dependent origin of multiple tumorigenic p53 mutations in stem cells

In dividing cells, expression of mutations is DNA strand symmetric. Of all mutations originating de novo in nondividing cells, only those in the transcribed (noncoding) strand are immediately expressed in mRNA and protein. In contrast, any new mutation in the nontranscribed (coding) strand remains unexpressed until the cells enter S phase and begin proliferation. This previously unrecognized difference enables us to examine the cell cycle-dependent origin of multiple tumorigenic mutations in stem cells. The human p53 gene, which acts as a gatekeeper in the control of G1 to S phase transition, was chosen for the analysis. Of all multiple mutations contained in p53 databases, we have tested in detail CpG transitions. Three features of CpG sites dictate this choice: C --> T transitions at methylated mCpG are the direct product of mC deamination and are replication-independent; it is easy to identify the strand bearing a primary mC --> T event because C --> T on the transcribed strand appears as G --> A on the nontranscribed strand; and CpG transitions are the most frequent (as both singular and multiple occurrences) tumor-related p53 mutations. The origin of double nonsilent CpG transitions in nondividing cells predicts a significant excess of the heterostrand (C --> T, G --> A) doublets over the homostrand (C --> T, C --> T and G --> A, G --> A) doublets. For p53, we found such an excess. Based on this result, along with the results of three other tests reported here, we conclude that the majority of multiple p53 mutations from human tumors occurred in quiescent stem cells.     

A phase I/II study of multicyclic dose-intensive chemotherapy supported with G-CSF, or G-CSF and haematopoietic progenitor cells in whole blood, in two consecutive cohorts of patients

We investigated the reconstitutive potential of haematopoietic progenitor cells collected in autologous whole blood during multicycle dose-intensified chemotherapy. Forty patients with metastatic solid tumours were treated with up to six cycles of cisplatin and escalating doses of ifosfamide every 14 days. Cisplatin was administered in 3% sodium chloride over 3 h, followed by ifosfamide over 24 h and mesna over 36 h. The first cohort of patients received granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) days 4-14. Once dose-limiting toxicity was reached in cohort 1, the study continued with a second cohort of patients, in whom, in addition to G-CSF on days 4-14, 500 ml of G-CSF and chemotherapy-'primed' whole blood was collected on day 15, i.e. on day 1 of treatment cycles two to six, before cisplatin administration. This volume of blood was kept unprocessed at 4 degrees C and reinfused 20-24 h after the completion of ifosfamide. In cohort 1, dose-limiting toxicity (DLT) was reached at ifosfamide 6.0 g m(-2) with two out of six of the patients developing neutropenic fever. Although in cohort 2 no neutropenic fever was encountered, neither the frequency nor the duration of grade 4 neutropenia and thrombocytopenia were reduced. Cumulative asthenia resulted in DLT at 7.0 g m(-2). The median number of CD34+ cells in 500 ml of whole blood after the first cycle (i.e. at start of cycle 2) was 1.15 x 10(6) kg(-1). This number was significantly greater after the second cycle (2.06 x 10(6) kg(-1), P = 0.01) and then gradually decreased after cycles three to six. After storing whole blood, the number of CD34+ cells had not decreased (median + 10%). We conclude that the method of combined bone marrow support by G-CSF and haematopoietic progenitor cells in autologous whole blood collected before each cycle of a 2-weekly regimen of cisplatin-ifosfamide does not result in clinically measurable reduced bone marrow toxicity compared with what can be expected by the use of G-CSF alone.     

The pre-clinical assessment of QT interval prolongation: a comparison of in vitro and in vivo methods

The literature was searched for in vivo dog studies reporting QT prolongation and in vitro studies reporting increased myocardial action potential duration, which indicates the potential to prolong QT interval, for nine non-cardiac drugs that have been reported to produce QT prolongation in man. The drugs were: astemizole; terfenadine; erythromycin; sparfloxacin; cisapride; probucol; terodiline; risperidone and sertindole. 1. There were reports of the appropriate finding with in vitro methods for six of the drugs and with in vivo methods for seven of the drugs. No reports were found concerning the remaining drugs with each method. This indicates that both methods are effective and each method would have correctly identified the drugs in question as having the potential to prolong the QT interval in man in all cases for which studies were reported. 2. This suggests that, if properly conducted, either method alone is sufficient for the pre-clinical assessment of QT interval prolongation. This does not support the routine use of both methods before the administration of new drugs to man.