Inhibition of 2-nitropropane-induced rat liver DNA and RNA damage by benzyl selenocyanate

We observed that pretreatment of male F344 rats with benzyl selenocyanate, a versatile organoselenium chemopreventive agent in several animal model systems, decreases the levels of DNA and RNA modifications produced in the liver by the hepatocarcinogen 2-nitropropane. To clarify the mechanisms involved, we pretreated male F344 rats with either benzyl selenocyanate, its sulfur analog benzyl thiocyanate, phenobarbital or cobalt protoporphyrin IX; the latter is a depletor of P450. We then determined (1) the ability of liver microsomes to denitrify 2-nitropropane, (2) effects on 2-nitropropane-induced liver DNA and RNA modifications and (3) amount of nitrate excreted in rat urine following administration of the carcinogen. Pretreatment with benzyl selenocyanate or phenobarbital increased the denitrification activity of liver microsomes by 217 and 765%, respectively, increased liver P4502B1 by 31- and 435-fold, respectively, decreased the levels of 2-nitropropane-induced modifications in liver DNA (29-70% and 17-30%, respectively) and RNA (67-85% and 30-50%, respectively), and increased the 24-h urinary excretion of nitrate by 157 and 209%, respectively. Pretreatment with benzyl thiocyanate had no significant effect on any of these parameters. Pretreatment with cobalt protoporphyrin IX decreased liver P4502B 1 by 87%, decreased the denitrification activity of liver microsomes by 76%, decreased the 24 h urinary excretion of nitrate by 88.5%, but increased the extent of 2-nitropropane-induced liver nucleic acid modifications by 17-67%. These results indicate that the metabolic sequence from 2-nitropropane to the reactive species causing DNA and RNA modifications does not involve the removal of the nitro group. Moreover, they suggest that benzyl selenocyanate inhibits 2-NP-induced liver nucleic acid modifications in part by increasing its detoxication through induction of denitrification, although it is evident that other mechanisms must also be involved.     

A noncompetitive peptide inhibitor of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor from Conus purpurascens venom

A paralytic peptide, psi-conotoxin Piiie has been purified and characterized from Conus purpurascens venom. Electrophysiological studies indicate that the peptide inhibits the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (nAChR). However, the peptide does not block the binding of alpha-bungarotoxin, a competitive nAChR antagonist. Thus, psi-conotoxin Piiie appears to inhibit the receptor at a site other than the acetylcholine-binding site. As ascertained by sequence analysis, mass spectrometry, and chemical synthesis, the peptide has the following covalent structure: HOOCCLYGKCRRYOGCSSASCCQR* (O = 4-trans hydroxyproline; * indicates an amidated C-terminus). The disulfide connectivity of the toxin is unrelated to the alpha- or the alphaA-conotoxins, the Conus peptide families that are competitive inhibitors of the nAChR, but shows homology to the mu-conotoxins (which are Na+ channel blockers).     

Scarring trachoma is associated with polymorphism in the tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) gene promoter and with elevated TNF-alpha levels in tear fluid

Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) may play a central role in the disease pathogenesis which occurs as a consequence of chlamydial infection. To investigate the importance of TNF-alpha gene promoter polymorphisms and TNF-alpha levels in tear fluid in scarring trachoma, a large matched-pair case-control study was performed in The Gambia. The -308A allele was present in a higher proportion of patients (28.4%) than controls (18.4%), with an increasing association for homozygotes (chi2 for trend, P = 0.032; allele frequency, 0.163 in patients and 0.099 in controls; chi2, P = 0.025). For the -238A allele, the association was similar but not significant. The disease association was highly significant when the number of either -308A or -238A sites in an individual was considered (P = 0.003). TNF-alpha promoter alleles are tightly linked to some HLA class I and II alleles, but multivariate analysis confirmed that the disease associations were independent of HLA, although a class I allele, A*6802, is also associated with disease. TNF-alpha was more frequently detected in tear samples from patients (27.6%) than from controls (15.9%), increasingly so for higher levels of detectable TNF-alpha (P = 0.015). Among patients, detectable TNF-alpha in tears was highly associated with the presence of ocular chlamydial infection (P < 0.001). The results indicate that TNF-alpha plays a major role in the tissue damage and scarring which occurs as a consequence of Chlamydia trachomatis infection.     

Comparative immunoreactivity of CD-68 and HMB-45 in malignant melanoma, neural tumors and nevi

The monoclonal antibody CD 68 (KP 1) reacts with fibrohistiocytic and some epithelial neoplasms; its reactivity compared with that of HMB 45 in malignant melanoma (MM) and neural tumors needs further elucidation. Using a streptavidin-biotin-immunoperoxidase procedure, we examined the reactivity of 65 MM (46 conventional, 1 polypoid, 6 desmoplastic [DMM], and 12 metastatic), 21 neurofibromas, 1 neurofibrosarcoma, 10 schwannomas, 1 perineurioma, 2 neurothekeomas, and 14 blue and 26 other nevi for CD-68, HMB-45-defined antigen, S 100 and neurofilament protein. A positive staining for CD 68 was observed in 38 of 42 primary, 5 of 6 DMM, and 11 of 12 metastatic melanomas; 6 of 10 schwannomas; 5 of 10 nevi with junctional component and all 14 blue nevi. All 21 neurofibromas, 1 each neurofibrosarcoma and perineurioma, both neurothekeomas, and all 12 nevi with dermal component were CD 68-negative. HBM 45 was expressed by all 44 primary, none of 6 DMM, and 7 of 12 metastatic melanomas; by none of 10 schwannomas, 6 neurofibromas, 1 neurofibrosarcoma, 1 perineurioma and 2 neurothekeomas. Both junctional nevi, 8 of 10 nevi with junctional components, 1 of 10 dermal components of junctional nevi, and 11 of 13 blue nevi were also HMB 45 positive. Except for 1 perineurioma, S 100 decorated all tumors examined. NF was immunoreactive in 1 of 45 conventional melanomas, 2 of 21 neurofibromas, 2 of 10 schwannomas, and 3 of 10 blue nevi; it was non-reactive in all polypoid, desmoplastic and metastatic melanomas; neurofibrosarcoma, perineurioma, neurothekeoma and other nevi. We conclude that the CD-68-reactivity in primary melanomas, neurofibromas, neurofibrosarcomas, perineuriomas, and nevi was similar to that of HMB 45. The significantly higher CD 68-positivity than of HMB 45 in metastatic and desmoplastic melanomas and schwannomas may be of diagnostic value.     

Babesial antibody dynamics after cattle immunisation with live vaccines, measured with an indirect immunofluorescence test

The efficacy of vaccination of Argentinean cattle against babesiosis and anaplasmosis using live immunogens was tested to detect specific antibodies in samples obtained about 60 days after vaccination. Under these conditions a higher than expected proportion of cattle failed to show antibodies against Babesia bigemina. Therefore, a study was designed to evaluate if this failure was due to insensitivity of the routine test to detect antibodies to B. bigemina or to lack of infectivity of the live vaccine. Four groups (G) of cattle were each inoculated subcutaneously with 10 million Babesia bovis (vaccinal strain R1A), 10 million B. bigemina (vaccinal strain S1A) and 10 million Anaplasma centrale (strain M1). G1 and G2 consisted of ten Angus bulls 20-24 months old and ten Angus bulls 15-18 months old, respectively; G3 and G4 consisted of ten and 16 Holstein 1-month-old male calves, respectively. Blood samples were obtained on days 0, 10, 20, 30, 40, 50 and 60 after vaccination and the sera were analysed with an indirect immunofluorescent (IFA) test to detect antibodies to B. bovis (baseline dilution for a positive result 1:60) and B. bigemina (baseline dilution 1:120). Positive IFA titres were considered as evidence of the infectivity of the Babesia vaccinal strains contained in the vaccine. All Angus bulls were found positive to antibodies against both Babesia species, by day 20 (B. bovis) and day 30 (B. bigemina), whereas 10-25% of Holstein calves were negative throughout. The partial lack of vaccine infectivity in the calves was considered to be a consequence of innate resistance of young calves to Babesia. Antibody titres to B. bovis and B. bigemina declined by day 60 after vaccination. However, all cattle that were positive to B. bovis antibodies on day 50 were still positive to the IFA test 10 days later while 10%, 30% and 12% of cattle of G1, G2 and G3 that were positive to B. bigemina antibodies on day 50 after vaccination were found negative to the IFA test on day 60. In future, samples taken on days 40-50 will be used for detection of B. bigemina antibodies in vaccinated cattle, on day 60 for A. centrale and on either occasion for B. bovis. The reaction to the inoculation of B. bigemina S1A strain appears to lag behind the reaction to B. bovis R1A strain. It is not certain if this is a normal reaction to this B. bigemina strain or the result of interaction with the B. bovis strain.     

Effect of chrysotile-asbestos and zeolites dust on generations of reactive oxygen species by alveolar macrophages and granulocytes

OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the discrepancy index between the clinical and histological diagnosis and the prevalence of epithelial dysplasia and carcinoma in 45 patients with potentially malignant epithelial oral lesions (PMEL). PATIENTS AND METHODS: We submitted 45 patients with PMEL to clinical examination and obtained a biopsy from each. The results of histological diagnosis were compared to the clinical diagnosis. RESULTS: Clinical diagnosis showed that the most common PMEL was leukoplakia followed by lichen planus and by actinic cheilitis associated with leukoplakia. The most common site was the buccal mucosa. Histological diagnosis revealed that 46.7% of the PMEL were lichen planus. The discrepancy index between clinical and histological diagnosis was 24.4%. The higher discrepancy index occurred among leukoplakias. The prevalence of epithelial dysplasia and carcinoma was 17.8%. CONCLUSIONS: We conclude that all PMEL should be submitted to a microscopic analysis because the discrepancy between clinical and histological diagnosis was present in a quarter of these lesions. Otherwise, the epithelial dysplasia and carcinoma were more frequent in the leukoplakias.     

Long-term results after allogeneic bone marrow transplantation for chronic myelogenous leukemia in chronic phase: a report from the Chronic Leukemia Working Party of the European Group for Blood and Marrow Transplantation

The purpose of this study was to determine the long-term results of allogeneic bone marrow transplantation for chronic myeloid leukemia. A retrospective analysis was carried out of the outcome of 373 consecutive transplants performed at 38 European institutions between 1980 and 1988 and reported to the registry of the European Group for Blood and Marrow Transplantation. All transplants were carried out for first chronic phase of chronic myelogenous leukemia using unmanipulated marow cells from HLA-identical sibling donors. The probability of survival and leukemia-free survival at 8 years were 54% (95% CI: 49-59) and 47% (95% CI: 41-52) respectively. The probabilities of developing acute GVHD (II-IV) at 100 days and chronic GVHD at 4 years after transplant were 47% (95% CI: 41-53) and 52% (95% CI: 46-58) respectively. The probabilities of transplant-related mortality and leukemic relapse 8 years after BMT were 41% (95% CI: 36-48) and 19% (95% CI: 14-25), respectively. Transplant within 12 months of diagnosis was associated with reduced transplant-related mortality (34 vs 45%, P = 0.013) and resulted in improved leukemia-free survival (52 vs 44%, P = 0.03). The probability of relapse was significantly reduced in patients who developed chronic GVHD (RR = 0.33, P = 0.004). The probability of relapse occurring more than 2 years after transplant was increased more than five-fold in patients transplanted from a male donor (RR = 5.5, P = 0.006). Sixty-seven patients in hematologic remission were studied for residual disease by two-step RT/PCR for BCR-ABL mRNA and 61 (91%) tested negative. We conclude that bone marrow transplantation can induce long-term survival in approximately one-half of CML patients; the majority of survivors have no evidence of residual leukemia cells when studied by molecular techniques. The probability of late relapse is increased with use of a male donor.     

Immunoscintigraphy of bone sarcomas--results in 5 patients

The feasibility of using the murine monoclonal antibody, TP-1, for clinical immunoscintigraphy was examined in a pilot study involving 5 patients with bone sarcomas. 131I-labelled F(ab')2 antibody fragments were injected in doses of 0.8-1.0 mg (90-130 MBq), and the accumulation of radioactivity was examined by scintigraphy, and assessed by direct measurements on biopsied tumour and normal tissue. One osteosarcoma patient had a primary tumour in the femur, whereas the other 4 had single lung metastases detected by other diagnostic methods. Immunoscintigraphy of the femoral primary was optimally visualised after 22 h. In 2 patients, the method failed to detect lung metastasis, in 1 of the cases possibly related to less than optimal methodological conditions. In 2 other patients, increased accumulation of radioactivity indicated one and three lung tumours, in addition to the single metastasis observed by X-ray and CT scanning, tumours that were later confirmed and removed surgically. The concentration of radioactivity in tumour and normal tissues 44-72 h after antibody injection could be measured in 4 patients. The tumour to blood ratios were in the range of 1.2-4.2, compared to 0.1-0.8 for various normal tissues. The results indicate that immunoscintigraphy with TP-1 antibody fragments have a potential for early detection of lung metastases in patients with bone sarcoma.